NR667 Week 5 Actual Exam Style V1 | NR
667 FNP Capstone Practicum and
Intensive CEA | Chamberlain
1. A 65-year-old male patient presents with a history of hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes.
According to the ACC/AHA guidelines, what is his target blood pressure goal?
A. Less than 130/80 mmHg
B. Less than 140/90 mmHg
C. Less than 150/90 mmHg
D. Less than 120/70 mmHg
Answer: A
Rationale: The ACC/AHA hypertension guidelines recommend a blood pressure goal of
less than 130/80 mmHg for most adults, including those with diabetes. This target is aimed
at reducing the risk of cardiovascular events and complications associated with chronic
conditions. Clinical evidence suggests that more intensive control provides better
outcomes for patients with multiple comorbidities.
2. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with mild
persistent asthma?
A. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) daily
B. Short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) as needed only
,C. Long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) daily
D. Oral corticosteroids for five days
Answer: A
Rationale: Mild persistent asthma is characterized by symptoms occurring more than
twice weekly but not daily. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are the preferred
maintenance therapy to reduce airway inflammation and prevent exacerbations. Using only
a SABA is appropriate for intermittent asthma but insufficient for persistent categories as it
does not address the underlying inflammatory process.
3. A 4-year-old child presents with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Epiglottitis
D. Pertussis
Answer: A
Rationale: Croup is typically caused by parainfluenza virus and presents with a classic
seal-like barking cough and stridor. It most commonly affects children between 6 months
and 3 years of age, though it can occur in older children. Management usually involves
supportive care and, in more severe cases, dexamethasone to reduce upper airway edema.
, 4. Which lab result is most indicative of primary hypothyroidism?
A. Low TSH and High Free T4
B. High TSH and Low Free T4
C. High TSH and High Free T4
D. Low TSH and Low Free T4
Answer: B
Rationale: Primary hypothyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland fails to produce
sufficient hormones, leading to an elevated Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) as the
pituitary tries to compensate. Consequently, the Free T4 level will be below the normal
range. This pattern is the hallmark of thyroid gland failure, often due to Hashimoto’s
thyroiditis.
5. A 24-year-old female presents with a malodorous, thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge.
Clue cells are noted on microscopy. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Fluconazole 150mg PO once
B. Azithromycin 1g PO once
C. Metronidazole 500mg PO twice daily for 7 days
D. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once
Answer: C
667 FNP Capstone Practicum and
Intensive CEA | Chamberlain
1. A 65-year-old male patient presents with a history of hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes.
According to the ACC/AHA guidelines, what is his target blood pressure goal?
A. Less than 130/80 mmHg
B. Less than 140/90 mmHg
C. Less than 150/90 mmHg
D. Less than 120/70 mmHg
Answer: A
Rationale: The ACC/AHA hypertension guidelines recommend a blood pressure goal of
less than 130/80 mmHg for most adults, including those with diabetes. This target is aimed
at reducing the risk of cardiovascular events and complications associated with chronic
conditions. Clinical evidence suggests that more intensive control provides better
outcomes for patients with multiple comorbidities.
2. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with mild
persistent asthma?
A. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) daily
B. Short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) as needed only
,C. Long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) daily
D. Oral corticosteroids for five days
Answer: A
Rationale: Mild persistent asthma is characterized by symptoms occurring more than
twice weekly but not daily. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are the preferred
maintenance therapy to reduce airway inflammation and prevent exacerbations. Using only
a SABA is appropriate for intermittent asthma but insufficient for persistent categories as it
does not address the underlying inflammatory process.
3. A 4-year-old child presents with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Epiglottitis
D. Pertussis
Answer: A
Rationale: Croup is typically caused by parainfluenza virus and presents with a classic
seal-like barking cough and stridor. It most commonly affects children between 6 months
and 3 years of age, though it can occur in older children. Management usually involves
supportive care and, in more severe cases, dexamethasone to reduce upper airway edema.
, 4. Which lab result is most indicative of primary hypothyroidism?
A. Low TSH and High Free T4
B. High TSH and Low Free T4
C. High TSH and High Free T4
D. Low TSH and Low Free T4
Answer: B
Rationale: Primary hypothyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland fails to produce
sufficient hormones, leading to an elevated Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) as the
pituitary tries to compensate. Consequently, the Free T4 level will be below the normal
range. This pattern is the hallmark of thyroid gland failure, often due to Hashimoto’s
thyroiditis.
5. A 24-year-old female presents with a malodorous, thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge.
Clue cells are noted on microscopy. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Fluconazole 150mg PO once
B. Azithromycin 1g PO once
C. Metronidazole 500mg PO twice daily for 7 days
D. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once
Answer: C
