NSG 3280 Exam 2 Questions and Correct Detailed Answers plus Rationales with
Complete Solutions | Graded A+ | Newest Update
Question 1
A patient presents with a primary outbreak of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Which of the
following medications should the nurse expect to be prescribed as the gold standard of
treatment?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Acyclovir
C) Fluconazole
D) Terbinafine
E) Prednisone
Correct Answer: B) Acyclovir
Rationale: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) is a viral infection, and therefore requires antiviral
therapy rather than antibiotics or antifungals. Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits
viral DNA polymerase, effectively reducing the duration and severity of outbreaks. While it
does not cure the latent virus, it is the primary treatment for managing symptoms and
reducing viral shedding.
Question 2
Which of the following best describes the underlying pathology of Herpes Zoster (Shingles)?
A) An acute bacterial infection of the epidermal layer
B) A chronic autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
C) An acute inflammatory disease of a dermatomal segment of the skin
D) A fungal overgrowth within the stratum corneum
E) A hypersensitivity reaction to external chemical irritants
Correct Answer: C) An acute inflammatory disease of a dermatomal segment of the skin
Rationale: Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV). After
an initial case of chickenpox, the virus remains latent in the dorsal root ganglia. When
reactivated, it travels along the spinal nerves or spinal tracts to the skin, causing a
localized, inflammatory eruption within a specific dermatome.
Question 3
In which anatomical location does the Varicella-Zoster virus remain latent before reactivating as
Shingles?
A) The ventral horn of the spinal cord
B) The neuromuscular junction
C) The dorsal root ganglia
D) The subcutaneous adipose tissue
E) The basal layer of the epidermis
Correct Answer: C) The dorsal root ganglia
Rationale: Shingles follows a neurocutaneous pattern because the virus resides in the
, 2
sensory nerve cell bodies (dorsal root ganglia) during its latent stage. Reactivation causes
the virus to move down the sensory nerve axons to the specific area of skin supplied by
those nerves.
Question 4
A 52-year-old patient asks the nurse about the Shingles vaccine (Shingrix). Based on current
guidelines, what is the recommended age for adults to receive this vaccine?
A) 18 years old
B) 35 years old
C) 40 years old
D) 50 years old
E) 65 years old
Correct Answer: D) 50 years old
Rationale: The CDC recommends that healthy adults 50 years and older receive two doses
of the recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) to prevent shingles and the complications
from the disease, such as postherpetic neuralgia. This is because the risk of reactivation
increases as the immune system weakens with age.
Question 5
When assessing a patient suspected of having Shingles, which clinical manifestation is most
characteristic of the rash?
A) A generalized maculopapular rash covering the trunk and limbs
B) Clusters of fluid-filled blisters in a unilateral band-like distribution
C) Silvery, scaly plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows
D) Honey-colored crusts around the mouth and nose
E) Small, itchy burrows located in the finger webs
Correct Answer: B) Clusters of fluid-filled blisters in a unilateral band-like distribution
Rationale: The hallmark of Herpes Zoster is its unilateral (one-sided) distribution. The
lesions typically appear as clusters of vesicles (fluid-filled blisters) on an erythematous (red)
base, following a specific dermatome—most commonly the mid-torso, shoulder, or face.
Question 6
Which patient population is at the highest risk for developing Herpes Zoster?
A) Adolescents with high levels of stress
B) Children who have recently received the MMR vaccine
C) Patients over age 60 or those with weakened immune systems
D) Individuals with a history of frequent bacterial skin infections
E) Pregnant women in their first trimester
, 3
Correct Answer: C) Patients over age 60 or those with weakened immune systems
Rationale: While the vaccine is recommended starting at 50, the highest incidence of
Shingles occurs in patients over 60. Immunosuppression (from HIV, chemotherapy, or
medications) also allows the latent virus to bypass the body's defenses and reactivate.
Question 7
A patient with Shingles is experiencing debilitating postherpetic neuralgia. Which medication
might be added to the treatment plan specifically for nerve pain?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Gabapentin
C) Amoxicillin
D) Hydrocortisone
E) Diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: B) Gabapentin
Rationale: While antivirals treat the virus itself, they do not always manage the severe
neuropathic pain associated with shingles. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant frequently used
to treat nerve pain (neuralgia) because it stabilizes electrical activity in the brain and
influences how the body senses pain.
Question 8
Which of the following fungal species are the primary etiologic agents of skin infections?
A) Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and E. coli
B) Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton
C) Borrelia burgdorferi and Rickettsia rickettsii
D) Candida albicans and Aspergillus
E) Sarcoptes scabiei and Pediculus humanus
Correct Answer: B) Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton
Rationale: These three genera are known as dermatophytes. They require keratin for
growth and are responsible for the majority of fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails
(tinea infections).
Question 9
A patient presents with an itchy, scaly rash between the toes. The nurse recognizes this as
"athlete's foot." What is the medical term for this condition?
A) Tinea capitis
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea pedis
D) Tinea cruris
E) Tinea unguium
, 4
Correct Answer: C) Tinea pedis
Rationale: "Tinea" refers to a fungal infection, and "pedis" refers to the foot. Tinea pedis
is commonly called athlete's foot and usually presents with scaling, maceration, and itching
between the toes or on the soles of the feet.
Question 10
A mother brings her child to the clinic with a circular, red, scaly patch on the scalp with some
hair loss. This is most likely:
A) Tinea pedis
B) Tinea capitis
C) Psoriasis
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
E) Impetigo
Correct Answer: B) Tinea capitis
Rationale: Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp. It often presents as "ringworm"
of the head, characterized by erythema, scaling, and sometimes alopecia (hair loss) as the
fungus invades the hair shafts.
Question 11
Which of the following is a classic clinical manifestation of a fungal (tinea) skin infection?
A) Honey-colored crusts
B) Silvery, white scaly patches
C) Erythematous plaques with peripheral scaling and central clearing
D) Purple, flat macules that do not blanch
E) Pustules that rupture to form a "varnish-like" crust
Correct Answer: C) Erythematous plaques with peripheral scaling and central clearing
Rationale: This "annular" or ring-like appearance is why fungal infections are often called
"ringworm." The fungus grows outward, leaving the center clearer while the edges remain
red and scaly.
Question 12
Yeast infections, such as those caused by Candida albicans, are often classified as:
A) Primary bacterial infections
B) Superficial infections of skin and/or mucous membranes
C) Deep tissue malignancies
D) Genetic connective tissue disorders
E) Vector-borne systemic illnesses
Correct Answer: B) Superficial infections of skin and/or mucous membranes
Rationale: Candidiasis (yeast infection) usually affects the superficial layers of the skin or
Complete Solutions | Graded A+ | Newest Update
Question 1
A patient presents with a primary outbreak of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Which of the
following medications should the nurse expect to be prescribed as the gold standard of
treatment?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Acyclovir
C) Fluconazole
D) Terbinafine
E) Prednisone
Correct Answer: B) Acyclovir
Rationale: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) is a viral infection, and therefore requires antiviral
therapy rather than antibiotics or antifungals. Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits
viral DNA polymerase, effectively reducing the duration and severity of outbreaks. While it
does not cure the latent virus, it is the primary treatment for managing symptoms and
reducing viral shedding.
Question 2
Which of the following best describes the underlying pathology of Herpes Zoster (Shingles)?
A) An acute bacterial infection of the epidermal layer
B) A chronic autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
C) An acute inflammatory disease of a dermatomal segment of the skin
D) A fungal overgrowth within the stratum corneum
E) A hypersensitivity reaction to external chemical irritants
Correct Answer: C) An acute inflammatory disease of a dermatomal segment of the skin
Rationale: Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV). After
an initial case of chickenpox, the virus remains latent in the dorsal root ganglia. When
reactivated, it travels along the spinal nerves or spinal tracts to the skin, causing a
localized, inflammatory eruption within a specific dermatome.
Question 3
In which anatomical location does the Varicella-Zoster virus remain latent before reactivating as
Shingles?
A) The ventral horn of the spinal cord
B) The neuromuscular junction
C) The dorsal root ganglia
D) The subcutaneous adipose tissue
E) The basal layer of the epidermis
Correct Answer: C) The dorsal root ganglia
Rationale: Shingles follows a neurocutaneous pattern because the virus resides in the
, 2
sensory nerve cell bodies (dorsal root ganglia) during its latent stage. Reactivation causes
the virus to move down the sensory nerve axons to the specific area of skin supplied by
those nerves.
Question 4
A 52-year-old patient asks the nurse about the Shingles vaccine (Shingrix). Based on current
guidelines, what is the recommended age for adults to receive this vaccine?
A) 18 years old
B) 35 years old
C) 40 years old
D) 50 years old
E) 65 years old
Correct Answer: D) 50 years old
Rationale: The CDC recommends that healthy adults 50 years and older receive two doses
of the recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) to prevent shingles and the complications
from the disease, such as postherpetic neuralgia. This is because the risk of reactivation
increases as the immune system weakens with age.
Question 5
When assessing a patient suspected of having Shingles, which clinical manifestation is most
characteristic of the rash?
A) A generalized maculopapular rash covering the trunk and limbs
B) Clusters of fluid-filled blisters in a unilateral band-like distribution
C) Silvery, scaly plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows
D) Honey-colored crusts around the mouth and nose
E) Small, itchy burrows located in the finger webs
Correct Answer: B) Clusters of fluid-filled blisters in a unilateral band-like distribution
Rationale: The hallmark of Herpes Zoster is its unilateral (one-sided) distribution. The
lesions typically appear as clusters of vesicles (fluid-filled blisters) on an erythematous (red)
base, following a specific dermatome—most commonly the mid-torso, shoulder, or face.
Question 6
Which patient population is at the highest risk for developing Herpes Zoster?
A) Adolescents with high levels of stress
B) Children who have recently received the MMR vaccine
C) Patients over age 60 or those with weakened immune systems
D) Individuals with a history of frequent bacterial skin infections
E) Pregnant women in their first trimester
, 3
Correct Answer: C) Patients over age 60 or those with weakened immune systems
Rationale: While the vaccine is recommended starting at 50, the highest incidence of
Shingles occurs in patients over 60. Immunosuppression (from HIV, chemotherapy, or
medications) also allows the latent virus to bypass the body's defenses and reactivate.
Question 7
A patient with Shingles is experiencing debilitating postherpetic neuralgia. Which medication
might be added to the treatment plan specifically for nerve pain?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Gabapentin
C) Amoxicillin
D) Hydrocortisone
E) Diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: B) Gabapentin
Rationale: While antivirals treat the virus itself, they do not always manage the severe
neuropathic pain associated with shingles. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant frequently used
to treat nerve pain (neuralgia) because it stabilizes electrical activity in the brain and
influences how the body senses pain.
Question 8
Which of the following fungal species are the primary etiologic agents of skin infections?
A) Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and E. coli
B) Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton
C) Borrelia burgdorferi and Rickettsia rickettsii
D) Candida albicans and Aspergillus
E) Sarcoptes scabiei and Pediculus humanus
Correct Answer: B) Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton
Rationale: These three genera are known as dermatophytes. They require keratin for
growth and are responsible for the majority of fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails
(tinea infections).
Question 9
A patient presents with an itchy, scaly rash between the toes. The nurse recognizes this as
"athlete's foot." What is the medical term for this condition?
A) Tinea capitis
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea pedis
D) Tinea cruris
E) Tinea unguium
, 4
Correct Answer: C) Tinea pedis
Rationale: "Tinea" refers to a fungal infection, and "pedis" refers to the foot. Tinea pedis
is commonly called athlete's foot and usually presents with scaling, maceration, and itching
between the toes or on the soles of the feet.
Question 10
A mother brings her child to the clinic with a circular, red, scaly patch on the scalp with some
hair loss. This is most likely:
A) Tinea pedis
B) Tinea capitis
C) Psoriasis
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
E) Impetigo
Correct Answer: B) Tinea capitis
Rationale: Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp. It often presents as "ringworm"
of the head, characterized by erythema, scaling, and sometimes alopecia (hair loss) as the
fungus invades the hair shafts.
Question 11
Which of the following is a classic clinical manifestation of a fungal (tinea) skin infection?
A) Honey-colored crusts
B) Silvery, white scaly patches
C) Erythematous plaques with peripheral scaling and central clearing
D) Purple, flat macules that do not blanch
E) Pustules that rupture to form a "varnish-like" crust
Correct Answer: C) Erythematous plaques with peripheral scaling and central clearing
Rationale: This "annular" or ring-like appearance is why fungal infections are often called
"ringworm." The fungus grows outward, leaving the center clearer while the edges remain
red and scaly.
Question 12
Yeast infections, such as those caused by Candida albicans, are often classified as:
A) Primary bacterial infections
B) Superficial infections of skin and/or mucous membranes
C) Deep tissue malignancies
D) Genetic connective tissue disorders
E) Vector-borne systemic illnesses
Correct Answer: B) Superficial infections of skin and/or mucous membranes
Rationale: Candidiasis (yeast infection) usually affects the superficial layers of the skin or
