ATI PN EXIT Exam ACTUAL EXAM – 80 Questions
& Verified Answers Latest Update
1. The PN is assessing a client who returned from surgery 2 hours ago and has a
respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. Which action is most important for the PN to
take first?
A. Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer
B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Check the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) record for type of anesthesia
received
D. Auscultate breath sounds bilaterally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min indicates respiratory depression, a
life-threatening complication. Providing oxygen first supports ventilation and prevents
hypoxia. A is ineffective if respiratory effort is insufficient. C is important but not the
immediate priority. D can be done after oxygen is applied.
2. A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) reports pain at
8/10. The PN notes respirations 8/min and the client is difficult to arouse. Which
prescribed medication should the PN prepare to administer?
A. Naloxone
B. Ketorolac
C. Hydromorphone
D. Diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses respiratory depression.
Ketorolac and hydromorphone will not reverse opioid effects; hydromorphone would
worsen sedation. Diphenhydramine treats itching, not respiratory depression.
3. The PN is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube set to low intermittent
suction. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Gastric output 250 mL in 8 hours
B. Abdomen soft, nontender
C. Continuous gurgling sounds at the suction source
D. pH of 4 from the NG aspirate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous gurgling indicates the suction is set to continuous rather than
intermittent, risking gastric mucosal irritation or perforation. A is normal output. B is
expected. D confirms gastric placement.
4. A postpartum client who delivered vaginally 12 hours ago asks the PN to explain
why she is having chills. Which response is best?
A. “You may be developing a breast infection.”
B. “This is a normal response to hormonal changes after delivery.”
C. “Let me check your temperature; you might have an infection.”
D. “I will notify the provider immediately for sepsis workup.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postpartum chills are common within 24 hours due to hormonal shifts and
fluid changes. A is premature without other symptoms. C is appropriate if fever > 38 °C.
D is an overreaction without assessment data.
, 5. The PN is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. The client’s apical pulse is
56 beats/min. What is the PN’s priority action?
A. Give the medication and recheck the pulse in 1 hour
B. Hold the dose and recheck the pulse in 15 minutes
C. Hold the dose and notify the registered nurse (RN)
D. Cut the tablet in half and administer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin is held for apical pulse < 60 beats/min; the RN must be notified to
contact the provider. A risks toxicity. B delays necessary provider notification. D is
outside PN scope to alter doses.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed epoetin alfa
subcutaneously. Which laboratory value best indicates the effectiveness of this
therapy?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum creatinine
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Potassium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing hemoglobin. B,
C, and D reflect kidney function, not erythropoiesis.
7. The PN is reinforcing teaching for a client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.
Which client statement indicates understanding of metformin?
A. “I should take it on an empty stomach to increase absorption.”
B. “I will stop taking it if I have the flu and cannot eat.”
, C. “I need to notify my provider before any procedures using contrast dye.”
D. “It can cause low blood sugar even if I eat regularly.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metformin must be withheld before contrast procedures to reduce lactic
acidosis risk. A is incorrect; it should be taken with meals to reduce GI upset. B is
unsafe; provider guidance is needed. C is correct; D is less common than with
sulfonylureas.
8. A child with asthma is prescribed a peak-flow meter. The PN should instruct the
caregiver to establish the “personal best” reading by measuring flows over what
period?
A. 1 day
B. 1 week
C. 2–3 weeks when symptom-free
D. 2 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Personal best is the highest reading achieved over 2–3 weeks when the child
is symptom-free and on optimal therapy. A and B are too short; D is unnecessarily long.
9. The PN observes a graduate PN student applying restraints to an agitated client
without a provider’s order. What is the PN’s immediate action?
A. Help the student secure the restraints safely
B. Tell the student to remove the restraints immediately
C. Notify the nursing supervisor
D. Document the incident in the student’s file
Correct Answer: B
& Verified Answers Latest Update
1. The PN is assessing a client who returned from surgery 2 hours ago and has a
respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. Which action is most important for the PN to
take first?
A. Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer
B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min
C. Check the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) record for type of anesthesia
received
D. Auscultate breath sounds bilaterally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min indicates respiratory depression, a
life-threatening complication. Providing oxygen first supports ventilation and prevents
hypoxia. A is ineffective if respiratory effort is insufficient. C is important but not the
immediate priority. D can be done after oxygen is applied.
2. A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) reports pain at
8/10. The PN notes respirations 8/min and the client is difficult to arouse. Which
prescribed medication should the PN prepare to administer?
A. Naloxone
B. Ketorolac
C. Hydromorphone
D. Diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses respiratory depression.
Ketorolac and hydromorphone will not reverse opioid effects; hydromorphone would
worsen sedation. Diphenhydramine treats itching, not respiratory depression.
3. The PN is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube set to low intermittent
suction. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Gastric output 250 mL in 8 hours
B. Abdomen soft, nontender
C. Continuous gurgling sounds at the suction source
D. pH of 4 from the NG aspirate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous gurgling indicates the suction is set to continuous rather than
intermittent, risking gastric mucosal irritation or perforation. A is normal output. B is
expected. D confirms gastric placement.
4. A postpartum client who delivered vaginally 12 hours ago asks the PN to explain
why she is having chills. Which response is best?
A. “You may be developing a breast infection.”
B. “This is a normal response to hormonal changes after delivery.”
C. “Let me check your temperature; you might have an infection.”
D. “I will notify the provider immediately for sepsis workup.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postpartum chills are common within 24 hours due to hormonal shifts and
fluid changes. A is premature without other symptoms. C is appropriate if fever > 38 °C.
D is an overreaction without assessment data.
, 5. The PN is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. The client’s apical pulse is
56 beats/min. What is the PN’s priority action?
A. Give the medication and recheck the pulse in 1 hour
B. Hold the dose and recheck the pulse in 15 minutes
C. Hold the dose and notify the registered nurse (RN)
D. Cut the tablet in half and administer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin is held for apical pulse < 60 beats/min; the RN must be notified to
contact the provider. A risks toxicity. B delays necessary provider notification. D is
outside PN scope to alter doses.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed epoetin alfa
subcutaneously. Which laboratory value best indicates the effectiveness of this
therapy?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum creatinine
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Potassium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing hemoglobin. B,
C, and D reflect kidney function, not erythropoiesis.
7. The PN is reinforcing teaching for a client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.
Which client statement indicates understanding of metformin?
A. “I should take it on an empty stomach to increase absorption.”
B. “I will stop taking it if I have the flu and cannot eat.”
, C. “I need to notify my provider before any procedures using contrast dye.”
D. “It can cause low blood sugar even if I eat regularly.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metformin must be withheld before contrast procedures to reduce lactic
acidosis risk. A is incorrect; it should be taken with meals to reduce GI upset. B is
unsafe; provider guidance is needed. C is correct; D is less common than with
sulfonylureas.
8. A child with asthma is prescribed a peak-flow meter. The PN should instruct the
caregiver to establish the “personal best” reading by measuring flows over what
period?
A. 1 day
B. 1 week
C. 2–3 weeks when symptom-free
D. 2 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Personal best is the highest reading achieved over 2–3 weeks when the child
is symptom-free and on optimal therapy. A and B are too short; D is unnecessarily long.
9. The PN observes a graduate PN student applying restraints to an agitated client
without a provider’s order. What is the PN’s immediate action?
A. Help the student secure the restraints safely
B. Tell the student to remove the restraints immediately
C. Notify the nursing supervisor
D. Document the incident in the student’s file
Correct Answer: B
