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ONCC Oncology Nursing Knowledge Practice Test (2026/2027) – Oncology Nursing Certification Corporation Practice Test with Complete Questions & Verified Answers | Latest Version

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Escrito en
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This document provides the verified ONCC Oncology Nursing Knowledge Practice Test for the 2026/2027 cycle, featuring complete practice questions with accurate, up-to-date answers. It reviews essential oncology nursing competencies, including cancer pathophysiology, treatment modalities, symptom management, patient education, pharmacologic therapies, and evidence-based supportive care. Designed for certification candidates, this resource strengthens oncology knowledge, enhances clinical judgement, and prepares nurses for ONCC credentialing requirements.

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Institución
ONCC
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ONCC

Información del documento

Subido en
10 de diciembre de 2025
Número de páginas
52
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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ONCC ONCOLOGY NURSING KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE TEST | 2026/2027

Oncology Nursing Certification Corporation Practice Test with Complete Questions & Verified
Answers | Latest Version


Overview

This 2026/2027 updated resource contains the latest ONCC (Oncology Nursing
Certification Corporation) Oncology Nursing Knowledge Practice Test with the
exact 175 questions and verified answers, following current ONCC test blueprints, ONS
(Oncology Nursing Society) standards, NCCN (National Comprehensive Cancer Network)
guidelines, and evidence-based oncology nursing practice across all cancer care domains.

Key Features
●​ ✓ Actual ONCC exam format with the official 175 questions
●​ ✓ Comprehensive coverage of oncology nursing competencies and specialty
knowledge
●​ ✓ Updated 2026/2027 cancer treatment protocols and supportive care standards
●​ ✓ Specialized oncology nursing interventions and symptom management
●​ ✓ Oncology emergency management and complication prevention

Core Content Areas (175 Total Questions)
●​ Cancer Pathophysiology & Treatment Modalities (35 Qs)
●​ Chemotherapy, Immunotherapy & Targeted Therapy Administration (30 Qs)
●​ Symptom Management & Supportive Care (30 Qs)
●​ Oncologic Emergencies & Complication Management (25 Qs)
●​ Psychosocial & Survivorship Care (20 Qs)
●​ Professional Performance & Quality Improvement (20 Qs)
●​ Pediatric & Adolescent Oncology Considerations (15 Qs)

Answer Format

Correct answers are marked in bold green and include:

●​ NCCN guideline citations for specific cancer types and treatments
●​ ONS chemotherapy/biotherapy administration standards applications
●​ Management of immune-related adverse events (irAEs) from
immunotherapy
●​ Cancer-related symptom assessment tools and intervention protocols
●​ Oncology emergency recognition and immediate intervention algorithms
●​ Survivorship care plan development and implementation

Updates for 2026/2027
●​ 🔹 Reflects 2026-2027 ONCC test blueprint revisions

, ●​ 🔹 Updated CAR-T cell therapy and bispecific antibody administration

●​ 🔹
protocols

🔹 Enhanced genetic counseling and precision oncology nursing standards
●​
●​ 🔹 New telehealth applications in oncology symptom management
Revised guidelines for cancer treatment-induced cardiotoxicity

●​ 🔹
monitoring
Updated standards for oncology clinical trial coordination and

●​
●​
🔹
management

🔹 Revised palliative care and end-of-life symptom management protocols
New cultural humility and health equity standards in cancer care




Full Practice Test: 175 Questions with Verified Answers

1. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of tyrosine kinase
inhibitors (TKIs)?

A. Bind to DNA and cause strand breaks

B. Inhibit specific intracellular signaling pathways involved in tumor growth

C. Activate the immune system to attack cancer cells

D. Interfere with microtubule formation during mitosis

B. Inhibit specific intracellular signaling pathways involved in tumor growth —
TKIs block phosphorylation in signal transduction cascades (e.g., EGFR, BCR-ABL), per
NCCN Guidelines v.2026.

2. Tumor lysis syndrome is most commonly associated with:

A. Solid tumors with slow growth

B. Hematologic malignancies with high tumor burden and rapid cell turnover

C. Metastatic bone disease

D. Early-stage breast cancer

B. Hematologic malignancies with high tumor burden and rapid cell turnover —
Especially acute leukemias and high-grade lymphomas; NCCN Prevention & Treatment of
TLS Guidelines (2026).

3. The primary purpose of neoadjuvant therapy is to:

,A. Cure metastatic disease

B. Reduce tumor size before surgery to improve resectability

C. Replace radiation therapy

D. Provide palliative symptom relief only

B. Reduce tumor size before surgery to improve resectability — Common in breast,
esophageal, and rectal cancers per NCCN guidelines.

4. Which gene mutation is most commonly associated with hereditary breast and
ovarian cancer syndrome?

A. KRAS

B. BRAF

C. BRCA1/BRCA2

D. EGFR

C. BRCA1/BRCA2 — NCCN Genetic/Familial High-Risk Assessment Guidelines (2026)
recommend testing and risk-reducing strategies.

5. Angiogenesis in tumor growth is primarily stimulated by:

A. p53 protein

B. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

C. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

D. Interleukin-2

B. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) — Targeted by bevacizumab and other
anti-angiogenic agents.

6. Which cancer is most strongly associated with human papillomavirus (HPV)?

A. Liver cancer

B. Cervical cancer

C. Leukemia

, D. Brain tumors

B. Cervical cancer — HPV types 16 and 18 cause >90% of cervical cancers; vaccination and
screening are key per ONS standards.

7. The "hallmarks of cancer" include all EXCEPT:

A. Sustained proliferative signaling

B. Evasion of immune destruction

C. Normal cellular apoptosis

D. Replicative immortality

C. Normal cellular apoptosis — Cancer cells evade apoptosis; this is a hallmark, not
normal function.

8. Which modality uses high-energy photons to damage DNA in cancer cells?

A. Chemotherapy

B. External beam radiation therapy

C. Immunotherapy

D. Hormonal therapy

B. External beam radiation therapy — Causes direct and indirect DNA damage via
ionizing radiation.

9. A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is most likely to have which
chromosomal abnormality?

A. t(8;14)

B. t(9;22) – Philadelphia chromosome

C. trisomy 21

D. deletion 5q

B. t(9;22) – Philadelphia chromosome — Results in BCR-ABL fusion gene; targeted by
TKIs like imatinib (NCCN CML Guidelines 2026).

10. Which of the following is a characteristic of cancer stem cells?
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