Pharmacology Final – 100 Questions
(2025/2026 Latest Update) | Complete
Nursing Exam Prep & Verified Q&A
1. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving Epoetin alfa for adverse effects. The
nurse should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of this
medication?
a. Edema and hematuria
b. Blurred vision and edema
c. Urinary retention and abdominal pain
d. Hypertension and headache - correct answerD.
Hypertension and headache.
2. A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] and
reports occasional periods of loss of drug effect lasting from minutes to several hours.
The nurse questions the patient further and discovers that these episodes occur at
different times related to the medication administration. The nurse will contact the
provider to discuss:
a. administering a catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor, such as entacapone.
b. adding the DA-releasing agent amantadine to the regimen.
c. giving a direct-acting dopamine agonist.
d. shortening the dosing interval of levodopa/carbidopa. - correct answerA
This patient is describing abrupt loss of effect, or the "off" phenomenon, which is treated
with
entacapone or another COMT inhibitor. Amantadine is used to treat dyskinesias. A
direct-acting dopamine agonist is useful for gradual loss of effect, which occurs at the
end of the
dosing interval as the dose is wearing off. Shortening the dosing interval does not help
with
abrupt loss of effect.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse notes that
the patient's INR is 2.7. Before giving the next dose of warfarin, the nurse will notify the
provider and:
a. administer the dose as ordered.
b. request an order to decrease the dose.
c. request an order to give vitamin K (phytonadione).
d. request an order to increase the dose. - correct answerA
This patient has an INR in the appropriate range, which is 2 to 3 for most patients and
2.5 to
,3.5 for some, so no change in warfarin dosing is necessary. It is not correct to request
an order
to either decrease or increase the dose of warfarin. It is not necessary to give vitamin K,
which is an antidote for warfarin toxicity.
4. A 65-year-old patient who receives glucocorticoids for arthritis is admitted to the
hospital for treatment of a urinary tract infection. The prescriber has ordered intravenous
ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. Before administering the third dose of this drug, the nurse reviews
the bacterial culture report and notes that the causative organism is Escherichia coli.
The bacterial sensitivity report is pending. The patient complains of right ankle pain.
What will the nurse do?
a. Withhold the dose of ciprofloxacin and notify the provider of the patient's
symptoms.
b. Instruct the patient to exercise the right foot and ankle to minimize the pain.
c. Question the patient about the consumption of milk and any other dairy products.
d. Request an order to increase this patient's dose of glucocorticoids. - correct answerA
A rare but serious adverse effect associated with fluoroquinolones is tendon rupture,
and those
at highest risk are children, patients older than 60 years, transplant patients, and any
patients
taking glucocorticoids. Any pain in either heel should be reported and the drug should
be
discontinued. Patients should be instructed not to exercise until tendonitis has been
ruled out.
Dairy products can reduce the absorption of ciprofloxacin, so this is not a concern with
this
patient. Because the pain may be caused by tendonitis associated with ciprofloxacin, it
is not
correct to request an increase in the glucocorticoid dosing.
5. A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine
[Subutex]
and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The
patient
asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a. "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."
b. "Suboxone has a longer half-life."
c. "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."
d. "Subutex has more buprenorphine." - correct answerA
The combination of buprenorphine and naloxone [Suboxone] discourages intravenous
abuse,
because with IV use, the naloxone precipitates withdrawal; this effect does not occur
with
sublingual dosing [Subutex]. Suboxone does not differ from Subutex in terms of drug
halflife.
Subutex does not cause more respiratory depression and does not contain more
,buprenorphine.
6. A clinic patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis for several months
remarks
to the nurse, "It's a good thing my symptoms are better, because my mother has been
quite ill,
and I have to take care of her." The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. The
nurse will
report this to the provider and ask about:
a. reducing the patient's dose.
b. using every other day dosing.
c. increasing the patient's dose.
d. tapering the dose. - correct answerC
Because of their adrenal suppression, patients taking glucocorticoids long term require
increased doses at times of stress and even for a time after stopping the drug until
adrenal
function returns. This patient's lower blood pressure is an indication that glucocorticoid
levels
may be depleted. Reducing the dose would only exacerbate the patient's problems.
Every
other day dosing is used early in glucocorticoid therapy to reduce adrenal suppression,
but it
would not be useful now. Tapering of doses is used to allow adrenal function to recover
as the
drug is discontinued.
7. A 30-year-old male patient will begin a three-drug regimen to treat peptic ulcer
disease. The
regimen will consist of bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline, and cimetidine [Tagamet].
The
nurse will include which information when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
a. Black discoloration of the tongue and stools should be reported immediately.
b. Central nervous system depression and confusion are likely to occur.
c. Decreased libido, impotence, and gynecomastia are reversible side effects.
d. Staining of the teeth may occur and is an indication for discontinuation of these
drugs. - correct answerC
Cimetidine has antiandrogenic effects and can cause decreased libido, impotence, and
gynecomastia. These effects are reversible. Black stools and discoloration of the tongue
are
side effects associated with bismuth but are not harmful. Central nervous system (CNS)
depression and confusion are not likely. Staining of the teeth associated with
tetracycline use
occurs only in developing teeth; it is a problem in children younger than 8 years and in
pregnant woman because of this risk to the fetus.
, 8. A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking oral cyclophosphamide to
treat
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding
about
how to minimize side effects while taking this drug?
a. "I don't need to worry about bone marrow suppression with this drug."
b. "I should drink plenty of fluids while taking this drug."
c. "I should take this drug on an empty stomach."
d. "If I shampoo less often, I can prevent hair loss." - correct answerB
Acute hemorrhagic cystitis can occur; this can be minimized by maintaining adequate
hydration and taking mesna [Mesnex], a protective agent. Bone marrow suppression is
a doselimiting
side effect. This drug should be taken with food. Hair loss cannot be prevented by
shampooing less often.
9. Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will
the nurse
expect to administer this drug?
a. Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal
b. In the morning and at 4:00 PM
c. Once daily at bedtime
d. After meals and at bedtime - correct answerC
Glargine insulin is indicated for once daily subcutaneous administration to treat adults
and
children with type 1 diabetes and adults with type 2 diabetes. According to the package
labeling, the once-daily injection should be given at bedtime. Glargine insulin should not
be
given more than once a day, although some patients require bid dosing to achieve a full
24
hours of basal coverage.
10. An older adult patient has confusion, memory loss, and disorientation in familiar
surroundings. The patient has been taking donepezil [Aricept] 10 mg once daily for 6
months.
The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen, and the patient's spouse asks if the
medication
dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse?
a. The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer
than 3 months.
b. The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once daily dosing.
c. The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side
effects.
d. The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be
increased. - correct answerA
Donepezil is given for mild, moderate, and severe AD, and dosing may be increased,
although
(2025/2026 Latest Update) | Complete
Nursing Exam Prep & Verified Q&A
1. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving Epoetin alfa for adverse effects. The
nurse should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of this
medication?
a. Edema and hematuria
b. Blurred vision and edema
c. Urinary retention and abdominal pain
d. Hypertension and headache - correct answerD.
Hypertension and headache.
2. A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] and
reports occasional periods of loss of drug effect lasting from minutes to several hours.
The nurse questions the patient further and discovers that these episodes occur at
different times related to the medication administration. The nurse will contact the
provider to discuss:
a. administering a catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor, such as entacapone.
b. adding the DA-releasing agent amantadine to the regimen.
c. giving a direct-acting dopamine agonist.
d. shortening the dosing interval of levodopa/carbidopa. - correct answerA
This patient is describing abrupt loss of effect, or the "off" phenomenon, which is treated
with
entacapone or another COMT inhibitor. Amantadine is used to treat dyskinesias. A
direct-acting dopamine agonist is useful for gradual loss of effect, which occurs at the
end of the
dosing interval as the dose is wearing off. Shortening the dosing interval does not help
with
abrupt loss of effect.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse notes that
the patient's INR is 2.7. Before giving the next dose of warfarin, the nurse will notify the
provider and:
a. administer the dose as ordered.
b. request an order to decrease the dose.
c. request an order to give vitamin K (phytonadione).
d. request an order to increase the dose. - correct answerA
This patient has an INR in the appropriate range, which is 2 to 3 for most patients and
2.5 to
,3.5 for some, so no change in warfarin dosing is necessary. It is not correct to request
an order
to either decrease or increase the dose of warfarin. It is not necessary to give vitamin K,
which is an antidote for warfarin toxicity.
4. A 65-year-old patient who receives glucocorticoids for arthritis is admitted to the
hospital for treatment of a urinary tract infection. The prescriber has ordered intravenous
ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. Before administering the third dose of this drug, the nurse reviews
the bacterial culture report and notes that the causative organism is Escherichia coli.
The bacterial sensitivity report is pending. The patient complains of right ankle pain.
What will the nurse do?
a. Withhold the dose of ciprofloxacin and notify the provider of the patient's
symptoms.
b. Instruct the patient to exercise the right foot and ankle to minimize the pain.
c. Question the patient about the consumption of milk and any other dairy products.
d. Request an order to increase this patient's dose of glucocorticoids. - correct answerA
A rare but serious adverse effect associated with fluoroquinolones is tendon rupture,
and those
at highest risk are children, patients older than 60 years, transplant patients, and any
patients
taking glucocorticoids. Any pain in either heel should be reported and the drug should
be
discontinued. Patients should be instructed not to exercise until tendonitis has been
ruled out.
Dairy products can reduce the absorption of ciprofloxacin, so this is not a concern with
this
patient. Because the pain may be caused by tendonitis associated with ciprofloxacin, it
is not
correct to request an increase in the glucocorticoid dosing.
5. A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine
[Subutex]
and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The
patient
asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a. "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."
b. "Suboxone has a longer half-life."
c. "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."
d. "Subutex has more buprenorphine." - correct answerA
The combination of buprenorphine and naloxone [Suboxone] discourages intravenous
abuse,
because with IV use, the naloxone precipitates withdrawal; this effect does not occur
with
sublingual dosing [Subutex]. Suboxone does not differ from Subutex in terms of drug
halflife.
Subutex does not cause more respiratory depression and does not contain more
,buprenorphine.
6. A clinic patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis for several months
remarks
to the nurse, "It's a good thing my symptoms are better, because my mother has been
quite ill,
and I have to take care of her." The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. The
nurse will
report this to the provider and ask about:
a. reducing the patient's dose.
b. using every other day dosing.
c. increasing the patient's dose.
d. tapering the dose. - correct answerC
Because of their adrenal suppression, patients taking glucocorticoids long term require
increased doses at times of stress and even for a time after stopping the drug until
adrenal
function returns. This patient's lower blood pressure is an indication that glucocorticoid
levels
may be depleted. Reducing the dose would only exacerbate the patient's problems.
Every
other day dosing is used early in glucocorticoid therapy to reduce adrenal suppression,
but it
would not be useful now. Tapering of doses is used to allow adrenal function to recover
as the
drug is discontinued.
7. A 30-year-old male patient will begin a three-drug regimen to treat peptic ulcer
disease. The
regimen will consist of bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline, and cimetidine [Tagamet].
The
nurse will include which information when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
a. Black discoloration of the tongue and stools should be reported immediately.
b. Central nervous system depression and confusion are likely to occur.
c. Decreased libido, impotence, and gynecomastia are reversible side effects.
d. Staining of the teeth may occur and is an indication for discontinuation of these
drugs. - correct answerC
Cimetidine has antiandrogenic effects and can cause decreased libido, impotence, and
gynecomastia. These effects are reversible. Black stools and discoloration of the tongue
are
side effects associated with bismuth but are not harmful. Central nervous system (CNS)
depression and confusion are not likely. Staining of the teeth associated with
tetracycline use
occurs only in developing teeth; it is a problem in children younger than 8 years and in
pregnant woman because of this risk to the fetus.
, 8. A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking oral cyclophosphamide to
treat
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding
about
how to minimize side effects while taking this drug?
a. "I don't need to worry about bone marrow suppression with this drug."
b. "I should drink plenty of fluids while taking this drug."
c. "I should take this drug on an empty stomach."
d. "If I shampoo less often, I can prevent hair loss." - correct answerB
Acute hemorrhagic cystitis can occur; this can be minimized by maintaining adequate
hydration and taking mesna [Mesnex], a protective agent. Bone marrow suppression is
a doselimiting
side effect. This drug should be taken with food. Hair loss cannot be prevented by
shampooing less often.
9. Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will
the nurse
expect to administer this drug?
a. Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal
b. In the morning and at 4:00 PM
c. Once daily at bedtime
d. After meals and at bedtime - correct answerC
Glargine insulin is indicated for once daily subcutaneous administration to treat adults
and
children with type 1 diabetes and adults with type 2 diabetes. According to the package
labeling, the once-daily injection should be given at bedtime. Glargine insulin should not
be
given more than once a day, although some patients require bid dosing to achieve a full
24
hours of basal coverage.
10. An older adult patient has confusion, memory loss, and disorientation in familiar
surroundings. The patient has been taking donepezil [Aricept] 10 mg once daily for 6
months.
The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen, and the patient's spouse asks if the
medication
dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse?
a. The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer
than 3 months.
b. The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once daily dosing.
c. The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side
effects.
d. The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be
increased. - correct answerA
Donepezil is given for mild, moderate, and severe AD, and dosing may be increased,
although
