NSG 3130 FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS & SKILLS FOR NURSING PRACTICE II
EXAM 3 (2025/2026)
Verified Questions & Answers | Comprehensive Nursing Assessment | Latest Edition
Overview
This 2025/2026 validated resource contains comprehensive NSG 3130 Exam 3
questions with verified answers, directly aligned with current nursing curriculum
standards for Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II. Essential for nursing
students preparing for course assessment and demonstrating advanced competency in
nursing fundamentals and clinical skills application.
Key Features
✓ 65-Question Comprehensive Exam matching course assessment format
✓ Advanced Clinical Skill Applications with safety protocols
✓ Complex Patient Care Scenarios with priority interventions
✓ Updated 2025/2026 nursing practice standards
✓ Medication Administration Focus with calculation applications
Content Domains
• Advanced Medication Administration (15 Questions)
• Complex Wound Care & Management (12 Questions)
• Respiratory Care & Oxygen Therapy (11 Questions)
• IV Therapy & Fluid Management (10 Questions)
• Pain Management & Comfort Measures (9 Questions)
• Documentation & Legal Considerations (8 Questions)
Answer Format
Verified correct answers in bold green with:
• Clinical skill performance rationales
• Safety protocol justifications
• Medication calculation methodologies
• Legal and ethical considerations
Critical Updates 2025/2026
NEW - Enhanced medication safety protocols
UPDATED - IV therapy competency standards
REVISED - Pain assessment and management guidelines
MODIFIED - Documentation and informatics requirements
ADVANCED MEDICATION ADMINISTRATION (Questions 1–15)
1. When preparing to administer a high-alert medication such as IV insulin, the
nurse’s first priority is to:
a) Check the patient’s most recent HbA1c level
b) Verify the dose with a second licensed nurse and confirm blood glucose level
, c) Dilute the medication in 100 mL NS
d) Administer within 30 minutes of preparation
b) Verify the dose with a second licensed nurse and confirm blood glucose level
Rationale: High-alert medications require independent double-check and indication
assessment to prevent hypoglycemic events; 2025 ISMP guidelines emphasize glucose
verification before and after administration.
2. The correct rate for IV push morphine 10 mg is:
a) Over 1 minute
b) Over 2–5 minutes to reduce hypotension and respiratory depression risk
c) Over 10 seconds
d) As fast as possible for rapid pain relief
b) Over 2–5 minutes to reduce hypotension and respiratory depression risk
Rationale: Rapid opioid push can cause severe adverse effects; 2025 Joint Commission
sentinel alert reinforces slow administration with continuous monitoring.
3. A patient is prescribed heparin 5,000 units subcutaneous. The vial contains
10,000 units/mL. The correct volume to administer is:
a) 0.25 mL
b) 0.5 mL
c) 1 mL
d) 2 mL
b) 0.5 mL
Rationale: Calculation: 5,000 units ÷ 10,000 units/mL = 0.5 mL; verify with second nurse
for high-alert medication.
4. Which injection site is preferred for heparin subcutaneous administration?
a) Dorsogluteal
b) Abdomen at least 2 inches from umbilicus
c) Deltoid
d) Vastus lateralis
b) Abdomen at least 2 inches from umbilicus
Rationale: Abdominal site ensures faster absorption and less bruising; rotate sites and
avoid umbilical area.
5. A patient receiving IV potassium chloride at 10 mEq/hr via pump complains
of burning at the site. The nurse should first:
a) Stop the infusion immediately and assess the IV site
b) Slow the rate to 5 mEq/hr
c) Apply warm compress
d) Tell the patient this is normal
a) Stop the infusion immediately and assess the IV site
Rationale: Pain may indicate infiltration or phlebitis; potassium is vesicant and requires
central line for concentrations >20 mEq/L or rates >10 mEq/hr per 2025 Infusion Nursing
Standards.
6. The correct technique for IV push Lasix 40 mg is to administer it:
a) Over 30 seconds
b) Over 2 minutes to prevent ototoxicity
c) Over 10 seconds
d) Diluted in 250 mL over 1 hour
b) Over 2 minutes to prevent ototoxicity
EXAM 3 (2025/2026)
Verified Questions & Answers | Comprehensive Nursing Assessment | Latest Edition
Overview
This 2025/2026 validated resource contains comprehensive NSG 3130 Exam 3
questions with verified answers, directly aligned with current nursing curriculum
standards for Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice II. Essential for nursing
students preparing for course assessment and demonstrating advanced competency in
nursing fundamentals and clinical skills application.
Key Features
✓ 65-Question Comprehensive Exam matching course assessment format
✓ Advanced Clinical Skill Applications with safety protocols
✓ Complex Patient Care Scenarios with priority interventions
✓ Updated 2025/2026 nursing practice standards
✓ Medication Administration Focus with calculation applications
Content Domains
• Advanced Medication Administration (15 Questions)
• Complex Wound Care & Management (12 Questions)
• Respiratory Care & Oxygen Therapy (11 Questions)
• IV Therapy & Fluid Management (10 Questions)
• Pain Management & Comfort Measures (9 Questions)
• Documentation & Legal Considerations (8 Questions)
Answer Format
Verified correct answers in bold green with:
• Clinical skill performance rationales
• Safety protocol justifications
• Medication calculation methodologies
• Legal and ethical considerations
Critical Updates 2025/2026
NEW - Enhanced medication safety protocols
UPDATED - IV therapy competency standards
REVISED - Pain assessment and management guidelines
MODIFIED - Documentation and informatics requirements
ADVANCED MEDICATION ADMINISTRATION (Questions 1–15)
1. When preparing to administer a high-alert medication such as IV insulin, the
nurse’s first priority is to:
a) Check the patient’s most recent HbA1c level
b) Verify the dose with a second licensed nurse and confirm blood glucose level
, c) Dilute the medication in 100 mL NS
d) Administer within 30 minutes of preparation
b) Verify the dose with a second licensed nurse and confirm blood glucose level
Rationale: High-alert medications require independent double-check and indication
assessment to prevent hypoglycemic events; 2025 ISMP guidelines emphasize glucose
verification before and after administration.
2. The correct rate for IV push morphine 10 mg is:
a) Over 1 minute
b) Over 2–5 minutes to reduce hypotension and respiratory depression risk
c) Over 10 seconds
d) As fast as possible for rapid pain relief
b) Over 2–5 minutes to reduce hypotension and respiratory depression risk
Rationale: Rapid opioid push can cause severe adverse effects; 2025 Joint Commission
sentinel alert reinforces slow administration with continuous monitoring.
3. A patient is prescribed heparin 5,000 units subcutaneous. The vial contains
10,000 units/mL. The correct volume to administer is:
a) 0.25 mL
b) 0.5 mL
c) 1 mL
d) 2 mL
b) 0.5 mL
Rationale: Calculation: 5,000 units ÷ 10,000 units/mL = 0.5 mL; verify with second nurse
for high-alert medication.
4. Which injection site is preferred for heparin subcutaneous administration?
a) Dorsogluteal
b) Abdomen at least 2 inches from umbilicus
c) Deltoid
d) Vastus lateralis
b) Abdomen at least 2 inches from umbilicus
Rationale: Abdominal site ensures faster absorption and less bruising; rotate sites and
avoid umbilical area.
5. A patient receiving IV potassium chloride at 10 mEq/hr via pump complains
of burning at the site. The nurse should first:
a) Stop the infusion immediately and assess the IV site
b) Slow the rate to 5 mEq/hr
c) Apply warm compress
d) Tell the patient this is normal
a) Stop the infusion immediately and assess the IV site
Rationale: Pain may indicate infiltration or phlebitis; potassium is vesicant and requires
central line for concentrations >20 mEq/L or rates >10 mEq/hr per 2025 Infusion Nursing
Standards.
6. The correct technique for IV push Lasix 40 mg is to administer it:
a) Over 30 seconds
b) Over 2 minutes to prevent ototoxicity
c) Over 10 seconds
d) Diluted in 250 mL over 1 hour
b) Over 2 minutes to prevent ototoxicity
