ATI RN Mental Health Exam 2025 NGN
Questions & Verified Answers | 100% Pass
Solution | Guaranteed A
Details of ATI RN Mental Health Exam 2025 NGN Questions &
Verified Answers | 100% Pass Solution | Guaranteed A
Case Study 1 — Questions 1–6 (6 NGN items)
Scenario:
A 28-year-old female, Aisha M., presents to the psychiatric ED
accompanied by her sister. She reports 2 weeks of low mood,
insomnia, poor appetite, and passive suicidal ideation without
plan. History: Major Depressive Disorder, prior partial response
to an SSRI. Current meds: sertraline 50 mg daily (started 3
weeks ago), oral contraceptive. Vitals: T 36.8°C, HR 86, BP
118/72. Labs: TSH 2.1 mIU/L, pregnancy test negative. On
exam: flat affect, slowed speech, states “I don’t feel like myself,”
rates suicidal ideation 3/10, no intent. She is tearful but
cooperative. Sister reports she has been drinking more alcohol
(2–3 drinks nightly) and recently missed doses of sertraline.
,Nurse notes poor appetite last 3 days and difficulty
concentrating.
Question 1 (NGN — Priority/Clinical Judgment — Bow-Tie
Format):
Place the clinical cues into the correct side of the bow-tie:
“Immediate safety concerns (Left)” vs “Contributing risk
factors (Right)”. Cues:
A. Passive suicidal ideation, rate 3/10
B. Missed doses of sertraline recently
C. Increased nightly alcohol use (2–3 drinks)
D. No active plan or intent; cooperative and tearful
E. Poor appetite, insomnia, difficulty concentrating
Correct Answer:
Left (Immediate safety concerns): A, D (A stronger; D modifies
risk).
Right (Contributing risk factors): B, C, E.
Rationale:
Immediate safety side includes actual suicidal ideation cues and
current presentation that requires monitoring (A). “No active
plan or intent; cooperative” (D) is a current modifier decreasing
immediacy but still relevant to safety decisions (so placed on
left to ensure observation). Contributing factors influencing risk
over time — missed meds (sertraline), alcohol use (increases
disinhibition and reduces med efficacy), and symptoms (poor
appetite, insomnia) — go on the right. This arrangement aligns
,with CJMM cue interpretation and helps prioritize
interventions.
Teaching Tip: Monitor for escalation; document changes in
intent/plan and communicate with the prescriber about med
adherence and alcohol use.
Question 2 (NGN — Clinical Action Sequence / Select Best
Nursing Priority):
Which is the nurse’s first action for Aisha right now?
A. Place on 1:1 continuous observation.
B. Complete a formal suicide risk assessment and ask about
plan/intent.
C. Administer PRN lorazepam for insomnia/anxiety.
D. Notify prescriber to switch to an SNRI due to partial
response.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The immediate nursing priority is a focused, formal suicide risk
assessment to determine current intent/plan and level of risk
(CJMM: analyze cues before acting). 1:1 observation (A) might
be warranted but should follow assessment if risk escalates;
automatic restraints/observation without assessment is not
best. Medication changes (D) or PRN sedatives (C) are
prescriber-level or safety-consequence actions after
assessment.
, Teaching Tip: Use direct, nonjudgmental language: “Do you
have a plan to harm yourself?” Document responses verbatim.
Question 3 (NGN — Multiple Response / Nursing Diagnoses):
Select the three most appropriate nursing diagnoses for Aisha
at this visit.
Options:
A. Risk for suicide related to hopelessness and missed
medication.
B. Ineffective coping related to alcohol use.
C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to
decreased appetite.
D. Disturbed thought processes related to psychosis.
E. Insomnia related to depressive disorder.
Correct Answer: A, B, E (C may be mild; D incorrect)
Rationale:
Aisha has suicidal ideation and missed meds → Risk for suicide
(A). Increased alcohol use suggests ineffective coping (B).
Insomnia is a clear symptom — include (E). Although she has
poor appetite, there's insufficient evidence of significant
nutritional deficit that meets criteria for Imbalanced nutrition
(C). No psychotic symptoms are described, so D is incorrect.
Teaching Tip: For documentation, link each diagnosis to
concrete cues (e.g., “reports passive suicidal thoughts; missed
sertraline doses; increased alcohol use nightly”).
Questions & Verified Answers | 100% Pass
Solution | Guaranteed A
Details of ATI RN Mental Health Exam 2025 NGN Questions &
Verified Answers | 100% Pass Solution | Guaranteed A
Case Study 1 — Questions 1–6 (6 NGN items)
Scenario:
A 28-year-old female, Aisha M., presents to the psychiatric ED
accompanied by her sister. She reports 2 weeks of low mood,
insomnia, poor appetite, and passive suicidal ideation without
plan. History: Major Depressive Disorder, prior partial response
to an SSRI. Current meds: sertraline 50 mg daily (started 3
weeks ago), oral contraceptive. Vitals: T 36.8°C, HR 86, BP
118/72. Labs: TSH 2.1 mIU/L, pregnancy test negative. On
exam: flat affect, slowed speech, states “I don’t feel like myself,”
rates suicidal ideation 3/10, no intent. She is tearful but
cooperative. Sister reports she has been drinking more alcohol
(2–3 drinks nightly) and recently missed doses of sertraline.
,Nurse notes poor appetite last 3 days and difficulty
concentrating.
Question 1 (NGN — Priority/Clinical Judgment — Bow-Tie
Format):
Place the clinical cues into the correct side of the bow-tie:
“Immediate safety concerns (Left)” vs “Contributing risk
factors (Right)”. Cues:
A. Passive suicidal ideation, rate 3/10
B. Missed doses of sertraline recently
C. Increased nightly alcohol use (2–3 drinks)
D. No active plan or intent; cooperative and tearful
E. Poor appetite, insomnia, difficulty concentrating
Correct Answer:
Left (Immediate safety concerns): A, D (A stronger; D modifies
risk).
Right (Contributing risk factors): B, C, E.
Rationale:
Immediate safety side includes actual suicidal ideation cues and
current presentation that requires monitoring (A). “No active
plan or intent; cooperative” (D) is a current modifier decreasing
immediacy but still relevant to safety decisions (so placed on
left to ensure observation). Contributing factors influencing risk
over time — missed meds (sertraline), alcohol use (increases
disinhibition and reduces med efficacy), and symptoms (poor
appetite, insomnia) — go on the right. This arrangement aligns
,with CJMM cue interpretation and helps prioritize
interventions.
Teaching Tip: Monitor for escalation; document changes in
intent/plan and communicate with the prescriber about med
adherence and alcohol use.
Question 2 (NGN — Clinical Action Sequence / Select Best
Nursing Priority):
Which is the nurse’s first action for Aisha right now?
A. Place on 1:1 continuous observation.
B. Complete a formal suicide risk assessment and ask about
plan/intent.
C. Administer PRN lorazepam for insomnia/anxiety.
D. Notify prescriber to switch to an SNRI due to partial
response.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The immediate nursing priority is a focused, formal suicide risk
assessment to determine current intent/plan and level of risk
(CJMM: analyze cues before acting). 1:1 observation (A) might
be warranted but should follow assessment if risk escalates;
automatic restraints/observation without assessment is not
best. Medication changes (D) or PRN sedatives (C) are
prescriber-level or safety-consequence actions after
assessment.
, Teaching Tip: Use direct, nonjudgmental language: “Do you
have a plan to harm yourself?” Document responses verbatim.
Question 3 (NGN — Multiple Response / Nursing Diagnoses):
Select the three most appropriate nursing diagnoses for Aisha
at this visit.
Options:
A. Risk for suicide related to hopelessness and missed
medication.
B. Ineffective coping related to alcohol use.
C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to
decreased appetite.
D. Disturbed thought processes related to psychosis.
E. Insomnia related to depressive disorder.
Correct Answer: A, B, E (C may be mild; D incorrect)
Rationale:
Aisha has suicidal ideation and missed meds → Risk for suicide
(A). Increased alcohol use suggests ineffective coping (B).
Insomnia is a clear symptom — include (E). Although she has
poor appetite, there's insufficient evidence of significant
nutritional deficit that meets criteria for Imbalanced nutrition
(C). No psychotic symptoms are described, so D is incorrect.
Teaching Tip: For documentation, link each diagnosis to
concrete cues (e.g., “reports passive suicidal thoughts; missed
sertraline doses; increased alcohol use nightly”).
