NR565 Week 4 Midterm Exam Review Examplify Online
Proctored Exam For August 2nd 2025 Complete 100
Actual exam Questions and Answer,s NR-565 Advanced
Pharmacology Fundamentals | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+
Q1. A patient is taking warfarin. The nurse should monitor which laboratory
value to evaluate the drug's effectiveness?
A. Prothrombin time (PT) / INR
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Answer: A (PT/INR monitors warfarin; aPTT monitors heparin.)
Q2. A patient is prescribed digoxin. Which sign indicates potential toxicity?
A. Heart rate of 78 bpm
B. Yellow halos around lights
C. Blood pressure of 130/80
D. Potassium level of 4.3 mEq/L
Answer: B (Yellow halos are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity.)
Q3. Which of the following drugs inducers and inhibitors would increase the
metabolism of warfarin?
A. A CYP2C9 inhibitor increases metabolism – actually no, inhibitors decrease
metabolism, increasing warfarin levels.
B. A CYP2C9 inducer would increase metabolism, decreasing warfarin levels. This
is correct.
Answer: B (CYP2C9 inducers such as rifampin or phenytoin increase warfarin
metabolism, decreasing its anticoagulant effect.)
1
,Q4. A patient with hypertension and chronic kidney disease is prescribed
lisinopril. The nurse should monitor which lab value?
A. Potassium and creatinine
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D. Liver function tests
Answer: A (ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia and worsen renal function;
potassium and creatinine should be monitored.)
Q5. A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which adverse effect
requires immediate notification of the provider?
A. Nausea and diarrhea
B. Lactic acidosis – rare but life-threatening
C. Weight gain
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B (Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin; it
requires immediate medical attention.)
Q6. Which of the following drugs the nurse should avoid administering to a
patient receiving metformin?
A. Iodinated contrast dye – risk of contrast-induced nephropathy leading to lactic
acidosis
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Beta-blockers
D. Thiazide diuretics
Answer: A (Iodinated contrast dye can cause acute kidney injury and lactic
acidosis in patients on metformin; metformin should be withheld for 48 hours
after contrast.)
Q7. A patient is prescribed a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. Which adverse effect
should the nurse educate the patient about?
A. Tendonitis or tendon rupture
B. Photosensitivity
C. Clostridioides difficile infection
D. All of the above
2
,Answer: D (All are adverse effects of fluoroquinolones.)
Q8. A patient is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) for deep vein thrombosis. The
nurse should administer the drug by which route?
A. IV push
B. Subcutaneous injection
C. Intramuscular injection
D. Oral
Answer: B (Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously.)
Q9. A patient has a INR of 6.5 while taking warfarin. The patient is not bleeding.
Which intervention should the nurse expect?
A. Administer vitamin K
B. Administer fresh frozen plasma
C. Hold the next dose and monitor INR
D. Administer protamine sulfate
Answer: C (Hold the dose and monitor INR; if the INR is >7.0 or bleeding is
present, vitamin K may be given.)
Q10. Which of the following is a priority for a patient prescribed an opioid?
A. Monitoring for respiratory depression
B. Monitoring for constipation
C. Monitoring for sedation
D. All of the above
Answer: D (All are important, but respiratory depression is the most immediate
threat.)
Q11. A patient is prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which
supplement should the patient take?
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Answer: A (Folic acid is given to reduce methotrexate's side effects.)
3
, Q12. A patient has a seizure after taking large doses of a drug. Which drug class
is most likely?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. SSRIs
C. Anticholinergics
D. Amphetamines
Answer: D (Amphetamine overdose can cause seizures; benzodiazepines and
SSRIs do not typically cause seizures at normal doses; anticholinergics can cause
delirium but not typically seizures.)
Q13. Which of the following is an example of a pro-drug?
A. Codeine (converted to morphine)
B. Aspirin (inactive until metabolized)
C. Both A and B
D. Neither
Answer: C (Both codeine and aspirin are pro-drugs; codeine is converted to
morphine by CYP2D6, and aspirin is converted to salicylate.)
Q14. A patient is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which condition would be a
contraindication?
A. Hypertension
B. Heart failure
C. Reactive airway disease (asthma or COPD)
D. Atrial fibrillation
Answer: C (Beta-blockers can cause bronchospasm in patients with reactive
airway disease and are generally contraindicated, though cardioselective agents
may be used with caution.)
Q15. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors?
A. Block angiotensin II receptors
B. Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C. Increase renin levels
D. Reduce sodium reabsorption in the renal tubule
Answer: B (ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II,
reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion.)
4
Proctored Exam For August 2nd 2025 Complete 100
Actual exam Questions and Answer,s NR-565 Advanced
Pharmacology Fundamentals | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+
Q1. A patient is taking warfarin. The nurse should monitor which laboratory
value to evaluate the drug's effectiveness?
A. Prothrombin time (PT) / INR
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Answer: A (PT/INR monitors warfarin; aPTT monitors heparin.)
Q2. A patient is prescribed digoxin. Which sign indicates potential toxicity?
A. Heart rate of 78 bpm
B. Yellow halos around lights
C. Blood pressure of 130/80
D. Potassium level of 4.3 mEq/L
Answer: B (Yellow halos are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity.)
Q3. Which of the following drugs inducers and inhibitors would increase the
metabolism of warfarin?
A. A CYP2C9 inhibitor increases metabolism – actually no, inhibitors decrease
metabolism, increasing warfarin levels.
B. A CYP2C9 inducer would increase metabolism, decreasing warfarin levels. This
is correct.
Answer: B (CYP2C9 inducers such as rifampin or phenytoin increase warfarin
metabolism, decreasing its anticoagulant effect.)
1
,Q4. A patient with hypertension and chronic kidney disease is prescribed
lisinopril. The nurse should monitor which lab value?
A. Potassium and creatinine
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D. Liver function tests
Answer: A (ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia and worsen renal function;
potassium and creatinine should be monitored.)
Q5. A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which adverse effect
requires immediate notification of the provider?
A. Nausea and diarrhea
B. Lactic acidosis – rare but life-threatening
C. Weight gain
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B (Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin; it
requires immediate medical attention.)
Q6. Which of the following drugs the nurse should avoid administering to a
patient receiving metformin?
A. Iodinated contrast dye – risk of contrast-induced nephropathy leading to lactic
acidosis
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Beta-blockers
D. Thiazide diuretics
Answer: A (Iodinated contrast dye can cause acute kidney injury and lactic
acidosis in patients on metformin; metformin should be withheld for 48 hours
after contrast.)
Q7. A patient is prescribed a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. Which adverse effect
should the nurse educate the patient about?
A. Tendonitis or tendon rupture
B. Photosensitivity
C. Clostridioides difficile infection
D. All of the above
2
,Answer: D (All are adverse effects of fluoroquinolones.)
Q8. A patient is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) for deep vein thrombosis. The
nurse should administer the drug by which route?
A. IV push
B. Subcutaneous injection
C. Intramuscular injection
D. Oral
Answer: B (Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously.)
Q9. A patient has a INR of 6.5 while taking warfarin. The patient is not bleeding.
Which intervention should the nurse expect?
A. Administer vitamin K
B. Administer fresh frozen plasma
C. Hold the next dose and monitor INR
D. Administer protamine sulfate
Answer: C (Hold the dose and monitor INR; if the INR is >7.0 or bleeding is
present, vitamin K may be given.)
Q10. Which of the following is a priority for a patient prescribed an opioid?
A. Monitoring for respiratory depression
B. Monitoring for constipation
C. Monitoring for sedation
D. All of the above
Answer: D (All are important, but respiratory depression is the most immediate
threat.)
Q11. A patient is prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which
supplement should the patient take?
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Answer: A (Folic acid is given to reduce methotrexate's side effects.)
3
, Q12. A patient has a seizure after taking large doses of a drug. Which drug class
is most likely?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. SSRIs
C. Anticholinergics
D. Amphetamines
Answer: D (Amphetamine overdose can cause seizures; benzodiazepines and
SSRIs do not typically cause seizures at normal doses; anticholinergics can cause
delirium but not typically seizures.)
Q13. Which of the following is an example of a pro-drug?
A. Codeine (converted to morphine)
B. Aspirin (inactive until metabolized)
C. Both A and B
D. Neither
Answer: C (Both codeine and aspirin are pro-drugs; codeine is converted to
morphine by CYP2D6, and aspirin is converted to salicylate.)
Q14. A patient is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which condition would be a
contraindication?
A. Hypertension
B. Heart failure
C. Reactive airway disease (asthma or COPD)
D. Atrial fibrillation
Answer: C (Beta-blockers can cause bronchospasm in patients with reactive
airway disease and are generally contraindicated, though cardioselective agents
may be used with caution.)
Q15. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors?
A. Block angiotensin II receptors
B. Inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C. Increase renin levels
D. Reduce sodium reabsorption in the renal tubule
Answer: B (ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II,
reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion.)
4
