APEA Women's Health Questions with
Correct Answers
A female patient complains of dysuria
with vaginal discharge. How should she be
managed? - ANSWERSPerform an
abdominal exam,
urinalysis, and
pelvic exam
Three of the following interventions are
appropriately used to prevent
osteoporosis after menopause. Which one
is not? - ANSWERSEstrogen
replacement
therapy
The clinical syndrome resulting from
replacement of normal vaginal flora with
anaerobic bacteria is: - ANSWERSbacterial
vaginosis.
A 30-year-old woman presents with
complaints of abnormal uterine bleeding.
If the patient has leiomyomas, the NP will
likely find which of the following when
performing the bimanual exam? - ANSWERSTenderness with
uterine mobility
Which of the following is NOT a
manifestation seen in women with
polycystic ovarian syndrome? - ANSWERSPelvic pain
A 25-year-old man presents to be tested
for STDs. He reports that his girlfriend
recently tested positive for Chlamydia.
They both report no other partners and
have been in a monogamous relationship
for the past 6 months and they have had
unprotected vaginal intercourse. The
patient is tested for STDs and
prophylactically treated for Chlamydia.
Upon return of the lab reports, the patient
, is not positive for Chlamydia. In this
scenario, which of the following
statements is most likely? - ANSWERSIt is possible that
the woman has
been an
asymptomatic
carrier of
Chlamydia during
the relationship.
A female should be told to take her oral
contraceptive pill (ocp) at bedtime if she
experiences: - ANSWERSnausea.
Which of the following statements is true
of vulvovaginal candidiasis? - ANSWERSVaginal pH is
typically normal
(4-4.5) in the
presence of
Candida infection.
When considering treatment for a 20-year-
old nonpregnant woman with bacterial
vaginosis, the nurse practitioner knows
that: - ANSWERSoral or vaginal
metronidazole
and clindamycin
have similar
efficacy.
A 15-year-old female has been sexually
active since she was 12 years old. She
presents today with concerns of
pregnancy. How should this be managed? - ANSWERSPregnancy test
should be
performed today.
A 16-year-old female is diagnosed with
primary dysmenorrhea. She has taken
over-the-counter ibuprofen in 800-mg
increments every 8 hours during menses
for the past 3 months, with minimal relief
of symptoms. What intervention will
provide greatest relief of dysmenorrhea
symptoms? - ANSWERSCombined oral
contraceptives
Correct Answers
A female patient complains of dysuria
with vaginal discharge. How should she be
managed? - ANSWERSPerform an
abdominal exam,
urinalysis, and
pelvic exam
Three of the following interventions are
appropriately used to prevent
osteoporosis after menopause. Which one
is not? - ANSWERSEstrogen
replacement
therapy
The clinical syndrome resulting from
replacement of normal vaginal flora with
anaerobic bacteria is: - ANSWERSbacterial
vaginosis.
A 30-year-old woman presents with
complaints of abnormal uterine bleeding.
If the patient has leiomyomas, the NP will
likely find which of the following when
performing the bimanual exam? - ANSWERSTenderness with
uterine mobility
Which of the following is NOT a
manifestation seen in women with
polycystic ovarian syndrome? - ANSWERSPelvic pain
A 25-year-old man presents to be tested
for STDs. He reports that his girlfriend
recently tested positive for Chlamydia.
They both report no other partners and
have been in a monogamous relationship
for the past 6 months and they have had
unprotected vaginal intercourse. The
patient is tested for STDs and
prophylactically treated for Chlamydia.
Upon return of the lab reports, the patient
, is not positive for Chlamydia. In this
scenario, which of the following
statements is most likely? - ANSWERSIt is possible that
the woman has
been an
asymptomatic
carrier of
Chlamydia during
the relationship.
A female should be told to take her oral
contraceptive pill (ocp) at bedtime if she
experiences: - ANSWERSnausea.
Which of the following statements is true
of vulvovaginal candidiasis? - ANSWERSVaginal pH is
typically normal
(4-4.5) in the
presence of
Candida infection.
When considering treatment for a 20-year-
old nonpregnant woman with bacterial
vaginosis, the nurse practitioner knows
that: - ANSWERSoral or vaginal
metronidazole
and clindamycin
have similar
efficacy.
A 15-year-old female has been sexually
active since she was 12 years old. She
presents today with concerns of
pregnancy. How should this be managed? - ANSWERSPregnancy test
should be
performed today.
A 16-year-old female is diagnosed with
primary dysmenorrhea. She has taken
over-the-counter ibuprofen in 800-mg
increments every 8 hours during menses
for the past 3 months, with minimal relief
of symptoms. What intervention will
provide greatest relief of dysmenorrhea
symptoms? - ANSWERSCombined oral
contraceptives
