QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
1.
A 32-year-old female with bipolar I disorder presents with increased agitation,
pressured speech, and insomnia for 5 days. She denies hallucinations. Which
medication is most appropriate for acute management?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Lithium
C. Haloperidol
D. Lorazepam
✅ Answer: B — Lithium
💡 Rationale: For acute mania, mood stabilizers (Lithium, valproate) are first-
line. Lorazepam can be adjunctive for agitation, but lithium targets the core
pathology.
2.
A patient on clozapine reports sore throat and fever. The PMHNP’s priority action
is to:
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Obtain CBC with differential
, C. Add antibiotic prophylaxis
D. Reduce clozapine dose
✅ Answer: B
💡 Rationale: Fever + sore throat may indicate agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal
side effect of clozapine. CBC with ANC count is required immediately.
3.
Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with the mechanism of action of
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Serotonin
D. Acetylcholine
✅ Answer: C
💡 Rationale: SSRIs inhibit reuptake of serotonin (5-HT), increasing its synaptic
concentration to alleviate depressive symptoms.
4.
A 10-year-old male exhibits inattentiveness and hyperactivity across multiple
settings. His teacher reports classroom disruption. Which diagnostic criteria must
be confirmed for ADHD?
A. Symptoms present before age 12 and in ≥2 settings
B. Symptoms occur only at school