NURS 6050 AGENDA
COMPARISON GRID AND FACT
SHEET
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED
A+<RECENT VERSION>
1) a person with sideroblastic anaemia would be likely to have ____ plasma levels of
iron. - ANSWER serum iron levels are high (Table 26-3)
2) what is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anaemia? - ANSWER most cases
of AA result from an autoimmune disease directed against hematopoietic stem cells.
Cytotoxic T cells (Tc cells) appear to be the main culprits.
3) what change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by
asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions? - ANSWER Allergic disorders (type I
hypersensitivity) associated with asthma, hay fever, and drug reaction, as well as
parasitic infection (particularly with metazoal parasites) are often cited as causes.
4) ____ is the virus associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children. -
ANSWER Epstein-Barr virus (EPV), found in nasopharyngeal secretions, is
associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children.
5) heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n): - ANSWER
heparin is a common cause of drug-induced thrombocytopenia. HIT is an immune-
, mediated, adverse drug reaction caused by IgG antibodies that lead to increased
platelet consumption and a decrease in platelet counts.
6) Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a(n) _____ condition in adults and a(n) _____
condition in children. - ANSWER ITP may be acute or chronic. the acute form is
frequently observed in children. Chronic ITP is more commonly observed in adults,
with highest prevalence in women between 20 and 40 years old.
7) what is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency? - ANSWER the most
common cause of vitamin K deficiency is parenteral nutrition in combination with
broad-spectrum antibiotics that destroy normal gut flora.
8) the most reliable and specific test for diagnosing DIC is: - ANSWER D-dimer
testing measures a specific DIC-related product.
9) polycythemia occurs in a fetus because: - ANSWER there is increased
erythropoiesis in response to the hypoxic intrauterine environment. The hypoxic
intrauterine environment stimulates erythropoietin production in the fetus.
10) In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult
is _____ days. - ANSWER in full-term infants, normal erythrocyte life span is 60
to 80 days; in premature infants it may be as short as 20-30 days; and in children and
adolescents, it is the same as that in adults - 120 days.
11) an infant's hemoglobin must fall below _____ g/dL before signs of pallor, tachycardia,
and systolic murmurs occur. - ANSWER when the hemoglobin falls below 5
g/dL, pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs may occur.
12) during HDN, the newborn develops hyperbilirubinemia after birth, but not in utero
because: - ANSWER excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta
into the mother's circulation is no longer possible. hyperbilirubinemia occurs in the
neonate after birth because excretion of lipid-soluble unconjugated bilirubin through
the placenta is no longer possible.
13) fetuses who do not survive anaemia in utero are usually stillborn, with gross edema of
the entire body, a condition called: - ANSWER hydrops fetalis.
,14) what is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high
in the newborn and are deposited in the brain. - ANSWER kernicterus - without
replacement transfusions, in which the child receive Rh-negative erythrocytes, the
bilirubin is deposited in the brain, a condition called kernicterus
15) characteristics of beta-thalassemia major include: - ANSWER a defect in the
uncoupling of a- and b- chain synthesis. the alpha- and beta-thalassemias are inherited
autosomal recessive disorders that cause an impaired rate of synthesis of one of the
two chains - a or b - of Hb A.
16) hemphilia A is inherited in an _____ fashion. - ANSWER hemophilia A (classic
hemophilia) is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder
17) match the macrophage to its location. Kidney - ANSWER langerhans cells or
alveolar macrophage or kupffer cells or mesangial cells
18) match the macrophage to its location.
Lung - ANSWER langerhans cells or alveolar macrophage or kupffer cells or
mesangial cells
19) Match the phrases with the corresponding terms. Options may be used more than
once.
Pernicious anaemia - ANSWER normocytic-normochromic anaemia or
macrocytic-normochromic anaemia or microcytic-hypochromic anaemia
20) Match the phrases with the corresponding terms. Options may be used more than
once.
Sideroblastic anaemia - ANSWER normocytic-normochromic anaemia or
macrocytic-normochromic anaemia or microcytic-hypochromic anaemia
, 21) Non pathogenic bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract produce chemicals that inhibit
colonization of pathogenic microorganisms.
True or False - ANSWER True - The normal flora also contributes to our innate protection
by producing several chemicals (e.g., ammonia, phenols, idols) that inhibit colonization by
disease-causing microorganisms.
22) Many of the normal bacterial flora in the intestines produce vitamin K and assist with
the absorption of calcium, iron, and magnesium.
True or False - ANSWER True - They are responsible for digesting fatty acids, large
polysaccharides, and other dietary substances, producing vitamin K, and assisting in the
absorption of various ions, such as calcium, iron, and magnesium.
23) Several bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, are resistant to killing by
granulocytes and can survive inside macrophages.
True or False - ANSWER True - Several bacteria are resistant to killing by granulocytes
and can even survive inside macrophages. Microorganisms such as M. tuberculosis
(tuberculosis), Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy), Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever), Brucella
abortus (brucellosis), and Listeria monocytogenes (listeriosis) can remain dormant or even
multiply inside the phagolysosomes of macrophages.
24) The main functions of natural killer (NK) cells are recognition and elimination of
bacteria.
True or False - ANSWER False - The main functions of NK cells are recognition and
elimination of cells infected with viruses, although they are also somewhat effective at
elimination of other abnormal host cells, specifically cancer cells.
25) Resolution is best defined as the restoration of original structure and physiologic
function.
True or False - ANSWER True - If damage is minor, no complications occur, and
destroyed tissues are capable of regeneration, it is possible to return injured tissues to an
approximation of their original structure and physiologic function. This restoration is called
resolution.
26) Each individual T and B lymphocyte specifically recognizes only one particular
antigen.
COMPARISON GRID AND FACT
SHEET
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED
A+<RECENT VERSION>
1) a person with sideroblastic anaemia would be likely to have ____ plasma levels of
iron. - ANSWER serum iron levels are high (Table 26-3)
2) what is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anaemia? - ANSWER most cases
of AA result from an autoimmune disease directed against hematopoietic stem cells.
Cytotoxic T cells (Tc cells) appear to be the main culprits.
3) what change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by
asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions? - ANSWER Allergic disorders (type I
hypersensitivity) associated with asthma, hay fever, and drug reaction, as well as
parasitic infection (particularly with metazoal parasites) are often cited as causes.
4) ____ is the virus associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children. -
ANSWER Epstein-Barr virus (EPV), found in nasopharyngeal secretions, is
associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children.
5) heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n): - ANSWER
heparin is a common cause of drug-induced thrombocytopenia. HIT is an immune-
, mediated, adverse drug reaction caused by IgG antibodies that lead to increased
platelet consumption and a decrease in platelet counts.
6) Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a(n) _____ condition in adults and a(n) _____
condition in children. - ANSWER ITP may be acute or chronic. the acute form is
frequently observed in children. Chronic ITP is more commonly observed in adults,
with highest prevalence in women between 20 and 40 years old.
7) what is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency? - ANSWER the most
common cause of vitamin K deficiency is parenteral nutrition in combination with
broad-spectrum antibiotics that destroy normal gut flora.
8) the most reliable and specific test for diagnosing DIC is: - ANSWER D-dimer
testing measures a specific DIC-related product.
9) polycythemia occurs in a fetus because: - ANSWER there is increased
erythropoiesis in response to the hypoxic intrauterine environment. The hypoxic
intrauterine environment stimulates erythropoietin production in the fetus.
10) In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult
is _____ days. - ANSWER in full-term infants, normal erythrocyte life span is 60
to 80 days; in premature infants it may be as short as 20-30 days; and in children and
adolescents, it is the same as that in adults - 120 days.
11) an infant's hemoglobin must fall below _____ g/dL before signs of pallor, tachycardia,
and systolic murmurs occur. - ANSWER when the hemoglobin falls below 5
g/dL, pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs may occur.
12) during HDN, the newborn develops hyperbilirubinemia after birth, but not in utero
because: - ANSWER excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta
into the mother's circulation is no longer possible. hyperbilirubinemia occurs in the
neonate after birth because excretion of lipid-soluble unconjugated bilirubin through
the placenta is no longer possible.
13) fetuses who do not survive anaemia in utero are usually stillborn, with gross edema of
the entire body, a condition called: - ANSWER hydrops fetalis.
,14) what is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high
in the newborn and are deposited in the brain. - ANSWER kernicterus - without
replacement transfusions, in which the child receive Rh-negative erythrocytes, the
bilirubin is deposited in the brain, a condition called kernicterus
15) characteristics of beta-thalassemia major include: - ANSWER a defect in the
uncoupling of a- and b- chain synthesis. the alpha- and beta-thalassemias are inherited
autosomal recessive disorders that cause an impaired rate of synthesis of one of the
two chains - a or b - of Hb A.
16) hemphilia A is inherited in an _____ fashion. - ANSWER hemophilia A (classic
hemophilia) is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder
17) match the macrophage to its location. Kidney - ANSWER langerhans cells or
alveolar macrophage or kupffer cells or mesangial cells
18) match the macrophage to its location.
Lung - ANSWER langerhans cells or alveolar macrophage or kupffer cells or
mesangial cells
19) Match the phrases with the corresponding terms. Options may be used more than
once.
Pernicious anaemia - ANSWER normocytic-normochromic anaemia or
macrocytic-normochromic anaemia or microcytic-hypochromic anaemia
20) Match the phrases with the corresponding terms. Options may be used more than
once.
Sideroblastic anaemia - ANSWER normocytic-normochromic anaemia or
macrocytic-normochromic anaemia or microcytic-hypochromic anaemia
, 21) Non pathogenic bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract produce chemicals that inhibit
colonization of pathogenic microorganisms.
True or False - ANSWER True - The normal flora also contributes to our innate protection
by producing several chemicals (e.g., ammonia, phenols, idols) that inhibit colonization by
disease-causing microorganisms.
22) Many of the normal bacterial flora in the intestines produce vitamin K and assist with
the absorption of calcium, iron, and magnesium.
True or False - ANSWER True - They are responsible for digesting fatty acids, large
polysaccharides, and other dietary substances, producing vitamin K, and assisting in the
absorption of various ions, such as calcium, iron, and magnesium.
23) Several bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, are resistant to killing by
granulocytes and can survive inside macrophages.
True or False - ANSWER True - Several bacteria are resistant to killing by granulocytes
and can even survive inside macrophages. Microorganisms such as M. tuberculosis
(tuberculosis), Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy), Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever), Brucella
abortus (brucellosis), and Listeria monocytogenes (listeriosis) can remain dormant or even
multiply inside the phagolysosomes of macrophages.
24) The main functions of natural killer (NK) cells are recognition and elimination of
bacteria.
True or False - ANSWER False - The main functions of NK cells are recognition and
elimination of cells infected with viruses, although they are also somewhat effective at
elimination of other abnormal host cells, specifically cancer cells.
25) Resolution is best defined as the restoration of original structure and physiologic
function.
True or False - ANSWER True - If damage is minor, no complications occur, and
destroyed tissues are capable of regeneration, it is possible to return injured tissues to an
approximation of their original structure and physiologic function. This restoration is called
resolution.
26) Each individual T and B lymphocyte specifically recognizes only one particular
antigen.
