OB PEDS HESI Exit Exam | 2025/2026 Edition | HESI
OB-Peds Exit Test Bank | 350 Actual Exam Questions
with Verified 100% Correct Answers | Graded A+
HESI OB-Peds Exit Exam | Updated for the 2025/2026 cycle, featuring a complete test bank
of 350 authentic exam-style questions with 100% verified correct answers. Covers all
essential domains: maternal health (antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum), newborn care,
pediatrics (growth and development, common illnesses, safety, nutrition, and pharmacology),
family-centered nursing care, delegation and prioritization, and evidence-based interventions in
OB and pediatric settings.
Overview
This comprehensive HESI OB-Peds Exit Exam Test Bank provides accurate, real exam-based
questions verified by nursing faculty and clinical experts. It is designed to strengthen nursing
students’ maternal-newborn and pediatric knowledge, enhance critical thinking, and prepare for
the HESI Exit and NCLEX-PN exams. Rated and graded A+ for precision and effectiveness.
Answer Format
Correct answers are displayed in bold green, with rationales explaining maternal-child health
priorities, pediatric growth and safety principles, and clinical decision-making strategies for
exam readiness.
HESI OB-Peds Exit Exam 2025/2026 (350 Questions)
Question 1: A pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal
movement. What is the priority action?
A) Encourage rest and recheck in 24 hours
B) Notify the provider immediately
C) Perform a non-stress test
D) Administer oxygen
B) Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress requiring urgent evaluation.
Question 2: A patient in labor is 6 cm dilated. What stage of labor is this?
A) First stage, latent phase
B) First stage, active phase
C) Second stage
D) Third stage
,B) First stage, active phase
Rationale: Active phase begins at 6 cm dilation.
Question 3: A postpartum patient has a boggy uterus. What should the nurse do
first?
A) Massage the fundus
B) Administer oxytocin
C) Check vital signs
D) Increase IV fluids
A) Massage the fundus
Rationale: Fundal massage promotes uterine contraction to control bleeding.
Question 4: A newborn has a heart rate of 90 bpm. What is the priority?
A) Initiate CPR
B) Recheck in 5 minutes
C) Notify the provider
D) Warm the infant
C) Notify the provider
Rationale: A heart rate <100 bpm requires immediate assessment.
Question 5: A 2-month-old infant has a fever of 100.4°F (38°C). What is the
priority?
A) Administer acetaminophen
B) Notify the provider
C) Apply a cool compress
D) Encourage fluids
B) Notify the provider
Rationale: Fever in infants <3 months requires urgent medical evaluation.
Question 6: A 5-year-old has a rash and fever. What is the priority assessment?
A) History of allergies
B) Vital signs
C) Family history
D) Dietary intake
A) History of allergies
Rationale: Allergies may cause rashes requiring specific management.
Question 7: A pregnant patient at 38 weeks has hypertension (150/95 mmHg).
What to do?
A) Encourage rest
B) Notify the provider
C) Recheck in 4 hours
D) Administer antihypertensives
B) Notify the provider
Rationale: Hypertension may indicate preeclampsia requiring evaluation.
,Question 8: A patient in labor has a contraction every 2 minutes. What is the
nurse’s action?
A) Prepare for delivery
B) Encourage pushing
C) Monitor fetal heart rate
D) Administer pain medication
C) Monitor fetal heart rate
Rationale: Frequent contractions require fetal monitoring for distress.
Question 9: A postpartum patient has lochia rubra for 5 days. Is this normal?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Recheck in 1 day
D) Notify provider
A) Yes
Rationale: Lochia rubra is normal for 2-4 days, occasionally up to 5-6 days.
Question 10: A newborn has jaundice at 24 hours. What is the priority?
A) Increase feeding
B) Expose to sunlight
C) Notify the provider
D) Administer IV fluids
C) Notify the provider
Rationale: Jaundice within 24 hours may indicate pathology.
Question 11: A 3-year-old has a seizure. What should the nurse do first?
A) Restrain the child
B) Protect from injury
C) Administer diazepam
D) Check vital signs
B) Protect from injury
Rationale: Safety is priority during a seizure.
Question 12: A 6-year-old has a sore throat and fever. What is the priority?
A) Obtain a throat culture
B) Administer antibiotics
C) Encourage fluids
D) Apply a cool compress
A) Obtain a throat culture
Rationale: A culture assesses for strep throat.
Question 13: A pregnant patient at 28 weeks has glucose in urine. What to do?
A) Encourage diet changes
B) Notify the provider
C) Recheck in 1 week
D) Administer insulin
, B) Notify the provider
Rationale: Glucose in urine may indicate gestational diabetes.
Question 14: A patient in labor has a BP of 160/100 mmHg. What is the priority?
A) Administer magnesium sulfate
B) Encourage rest
C) Recheck in 2 hours
D) Notify the provider
D) Notify the provider
Rationale: High BP may indicate preeclampsia requiring urgent care.
Question 15: A postpartum patient has a temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C). What to
do?
A) Notify the provider
B) Apply a cool cloth
C) Increase fluids
D) Administer antibiotics
A) Notify the provider
Rationale: Postpartum fever may indicate infection.
Question 16: A newborn has a respiratory rate of 70 bpm. What to do?
A) Notify the provider
B) Recheck in 1 hour
C) Increase feeding
D) Warm the infant
A) Notify the provider
Rationale: >60 bpm may indicate respiratory distress.
Question 17: A 4-year-old has a fever of 103°F (39.4°C). What is the priority?
A) Administer ibuprofen
B) Apply a cool bath
C) Check for seizures
D) Encourage play
C) Check for seizures
Rationale: High fever increases seizure risk.
Question 18: A pregnant patient at 36 weeks reports vaginal bleeding. What to do?
A) Encourage bed rest
B) Notify the provider
C) Recheck in 4 hours
D) Administer tocolytics
B) Notify the provider
Rationale: Bleeding may indicate placenta previa or abruption.
Question 19: A patient in labor is fully dilated. What stage is this?
A) First stage
B) Second stage
OB-Peds Exit Test Bank | 350 Actual Exam Questions
with Verified 100% Correct Answers | Graded A+
HESI OB-Peds Exit Exam | Updated for the 2025/2026 cycle, featuring a complete test bank
of 350 authentic exam-style questions with 100% verified correct answers. Covers all
essential domains: maternal health (antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum), newborn care,
pediatrics (growth and development, common illnesses, safety, nutrition, and pharmacology),
family-centered nursing care, delegation and prioritization, and evidence-based interventions in
OB and pediatric settings.
Overview
This comprehensive HESI OB-Peds Exit Exam Test Bank provides accurate, real exam-based
questions verified by nursing faculty and clinical experts. It is designed to strengthen nursing
students’ maternal-newborn and pediatric knowledge, enhance critical thinking, and prepare for
the HESI Exit and NCLEX-PN exams. Rated and graded A+ for precision and effectiveness.
Answer Format
Correct answers are displayed in bold green, with rationales explaining maternal-child health
priorities, pediatric growth and safety principles, and clinical decision-making strategies for
exam readiness.
HESI OB-Peds Exit Exam 2025/2026 (350 Questions)
Question 1: A pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal
movement. What is the priority action?
A) Encourage rest and recheck in 24 hours
B) Notify the provider immediately
C) Perform a non-stress test
D) Administer oxygen
B) Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress requiring urgent evaluation.
Question 2: A patient in labor is 6 cm dilated. What stage of labor is this?
A) First stage, latent phase
B) First stage, active phase
C) Second stage
D) Third stage
,B) First stage, active phase
Rationale: Active phase begins at 6 cm dilation.
Question 3: A postpartum patient has a boggy uterus. What should the nurse do
first?
A) Massage the fundus
B) Administer oxytocin
C) Check vital signs
D) Increase IV fluids
A) Massage the fundus
Rationale: Fundal massage promotes uterine contraction to control bleeding.
Question 4: A newborn has a heart rate of 90 bpm. What is the priority?
A) Initiate CPR
B) Recheck in 5 minutes
C) Notify the provider
D) Warm the infant
C) Notify the provider
Rationale: A heart rate <100 bpm requires immediate assessment.
Question 5: A 2-month-old infant has a fever of 100.4°F (38°C). What is the
priority?
A) Administer acetaminophen
B) Notify the provider
C) Apply a cool compress
D) Encourage fluids
B) Notify the provider
Rationale: Fever in infants <3 months requires urgent medical evaluation.
Question 6: A 5-year-old has a rash and fever. What is the priority assessment?
A) History of allergies
B) Vital signs
C) Family history
D) Dietary intake
A) History of allergies
Rationale: Allergies may cause rashes requiring specific management.
Question 7: A pregnant patient at 38 weeks has hypertension (150/95 mmHg).
What to do?
A) Encourage rest
B) Notify the provider
C) Recheck in 4 hours
D) Administer antihypertensives
B) Notify the provider
Rationale: Hypertension may indicate preeclampsia requiring evaluation.
,Question 8: A patient in labor has a contraction every 2 minutes. What is the
nurse’s action?
A) Prepare for delivery
B) Encourage pushing
C) Monitor fetal heart rate
D) Administer pain medication
C) Monitor fetal heart rate
Rationale: Frequent contractions require fetal monitoring for distress.
Question 9: A postpartum patient has lochia rubra for 5 days. Is this normal?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Recheck in 1 day
D) Notify provider
A) Yes
Rationale: Lochia rubra is normal for 2-4 days, occasionally up to 5-6 days.
Question 10: A newborn has jaundice at 24 hours. What is the priority?
A) Increase feeding
B) Expose to sunlight
C) Notify the provider
D) Administer IV fluids
C) Notify the provider
Rationale: Jaundice within 24 hours may indicate pathology.
Question 11: A 3-year-old has a seizure. What should the nurse do first?
A) Restrain the child
B) Protect from injury
C) Administer diazepam
D) Check vital signs
B) Protect from injury
Rationale: Safety is priority during a seizure.
Question 12: A 6-year-old has a sore throat and fever. What is the priority?
A) Obtain a throat culture
B) Administer antibiotics
C) Encourage fluids
D) Apply a cool compress
A) Obtain a throat culture
Rationale: A culture assesses for strep throat.
Question 13: A pregnant patient at 28 weeks has glucose in urine. What to do?
A) Encourage diet changes
B) Notify the provider
C) Recheck in 1 week
D) Administer insulin
, B) Notify the provider
Rationale: Glucose in urine may indicate gestational diabetes.
Question 14: A patient in labor has a BP of 160/100 mmHg. What is the priority?
A) Administer magnesium sulfate
B) Encourage rest
C) Recheck in 2 hours
D) Notify the provider
D) Notify the provider
Rationale: High BP may indicate preeclampsia requiring urgent care.
Question 15: A postpartum patient has a temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C). What to
do?
A) Notify the provider
B) Apply a cool cloth
C) Increase fluids
D) Administer antibiotics
A) Notify the provider
Rationale: Postpartum fever may indicate infection.
Question 16: A newborn has a respiratory rate of 70 bpm. What to do?
A) Notify the provider
B) Recheck in 1 hour
C) Increase feeding
D) Warm the infant
A) Notify the provider
Rationale: >60 bpm may indicate respiratory distress.
Question 17: A 4-year-old has a fever of 103°F (39.4°C). What is the priority?
A) Administer ibuprofen
B) Apply a cool bath
C) Check for seizures
D) Encourage play
C) Check for seizures
Rationale: High fever increases seizure risk.
Question 18: A pregnant patient at 36 weeks reports vaginal bleeding. What to do?
A) Encourage bed rest
B) Notify the provider
C) Recheck in 4 hours
D) Administer tocolytics
B) Notify the provider
Rationale: Bleeding may indicate placenta previa or abruption.
Question 19: A patient in labor is fully dilated. What stage is this?
A) First stage
B) Second stage
