Maryville NR 360 Pharmacology Exam
2 With Actual 120 Questions &
Verified Answers,Plus
Rationales/Expert Verified For
Guaranteed Pass Graded A+/
2025/2026 /Latest Update/Instant
Download Pdf
1. Which medication is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Naloxone (correct)
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses respiratory
depression caused by opioids.
2. A patient taking warfarin (coumadin) should avoid which food because it decreases
warfarin’s anticoagulant effect?
A. Grapefruit
B. Green leafy vegetables (high in vitamin K) (correct)
C. Bananas
D. Yogurt
Rationale: Vitamin K-rich foods (e.g., spinach, kale) increase clotting factor
synthesis and reduce warfarin effect.
3. Which class of antibiotics is most associated with tendon rupture as an adverse
effect?
A. Macrolides
B. Penicillins
C. Fluoroquinolones (correct)
D. Tetracyclines
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) have been linked to tendonitis and
tendon rupture, especially in older adults and those on steroids.
,4. A patient on lisinopril develops a dry cough. This adverse effect is due to
accumulation of:
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Bradykinin (correct)
D. Dopamine
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which is thought to cause a
persistent dry cough.
5. Which insulin is most appropriate for sliding-scale coverage because of its rapid onset
and short duration?
A. NPH insulin
B. Regular insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin detemir
Rationale: Regular insulin is short-acting with relatively rapid onset; sliding-scale
regimens commonly use regular insulin for acute glucose correction.
6. A patient receiving heparin therapy should be monitored with which laboratory test?
A. INR
B. aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) (correct)
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Heparin prolongs aPTT; dosing is titrated based on aPTT to maintain
therapeutic anticoagulation.
7. Which drug is the first-line therapy for anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Epinephrine (correct)
D. Albuterol
Rationale: IM epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis due to its vasoconstrictive
and bronchodilatory effects.
8. Which medication class reduces preload by dilating venous capacitance vessels and is
used in acute heart failure?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Nitrates (e.g., nitroglycerin) (correct)
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
Rationale: Nitrates dilate veins, reducing venous return (preload) and relieving
pulmonary congestion in acute HF.
, 9. A patient on digoxin develops nausea, visual disturbances (yellow halos), and
arrhythmias. These symptoms suggest:
A. Hypokalemia only
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Digoxin toxicity (correct)
D. Beta-blocker overdose
Rationale: Gastrointestinal symptoms, visual changes, and arrhythmias are classic
signs of digoxin toxicity; electrolytes and digoxin level should be checked.
10. Which medication is used to treat serotonin syndrome by antagonizing serotonin
receptors?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Cyproheptadine (correct)
C. Naloxone
D. Physostigmine
Rationale: Cyproheptadine is an antihistamine with anti-serotonergic activity used
to treat serotonin syndrome.
11. Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?
A. Methyldopa
B. Labetalol
C. ACE inhibitors (e.g., enalapril) (correct)
D. Nifedipine
Rationale: ACE inhibitors are associated with fetal renal damage and other
congenital issues and should be avoided in pregnancy.
12. A patient on a statin complains of muscle pain and weakness. The nurse should
assess which lab?
A. Serum creatinine
B. CBC
C. Creatine kinase (CK) (correct)
D. ALT only
Rationale: Statin-associated myopathy can be monitored by checking CK levels;
severe cases (rhabdomyolysis) require stopping the drug.
13. Which of the following is an expected anticholinergic side effect?
A. Diarrhea
B. Dry mouth (correct)
C. Miosis
D. Excessive sweating
Rationale: Anticholinergic drugs decrease secretions and smooth muscle activity,
leading to dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and blurred vision.
2 With Actual 120 Questions &
Verified Answers,Plus
Rationales/Expert Verified For
Guaranteed Pass Graded A+/
2025/2026 /Latest Update/Instant
Download Pdf
1. Which medication is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Naloxone (correct)
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses respiratory
depression caused by opioids.
2. A patient taking warfarin (coumadin) should avoid which food because it decreases
warfarin’s anticoagulant effect?
A. Grapefruit
B. Green leafy vegetables (high in vitamin K) (correct)
C. Bananas
D. Yogurt
Rationale: Vitamin K-rich foods (e.g., spinach, kale) increase clotting factor
synthesis and reduce warfarin effect.
3. Which class of antibiotics is most associated with tendon rupture as an adverse
effect?
A. Macrolides
B. Penicillins
C. Fluoroquinolones (correct)
D. Tetracyclines
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) have been linked to tendonitis and
tendon rupture, especially in older adults and those on steroids.
,4. A patient on lisinopril develops a dry cough. This adverse effect is due to
accumulation of:
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Bradykinin (correct)
D. Dopamine
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which is thought to cause a
persistent dry cough.
5. Which insulin is most appropriate for sliding-scale coverage because of its rapid onset
and short duration?
A. NPH insulin
B. Regular insulin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Insulin detemir
Rationale: Regular insulin is short-acting with relatively rapid onset; sliding-scale
regimens commonly use regular insulin for acute glucose correction.
6. A patient receiving heparin therapy should be monitored with which laboratory test?
A. INR
B. aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) (correct)
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Heparin prolongs aPTT; dosing is titrated based on aPTT to maintain
therapeutic anticoagulation.
7. Which drug is the first-line therapy for anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Epinephrine (correct)
D. Albuterol
Rationale: IM epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis due to its vasoconstrictive
and bronchodilatory effects.
8. Which medication class reduces preload by dilating venous capacitance vessels and is
used in acute heart failure?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Nitrates (e.g., nitroglycerin) (correct)
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
Rationale: Nitrates dilate veins, reducing venous return (preload) and relieving
pulmonary congestion in acute HF.
, 9. A patient on digoxin develops nausea, visual disturbances (yellow halos), and
arrhythmias. These symptoms suggest:
A. Hypokalemia only
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Digoxin toxicity (correct)
D. Beta-blocker overdose
Rationale: Gastrointestinal symptoms, visual changes, and arrhythmias are classic
signs of digoxin toxicity; electrolytes and digoxin level should be checked.
10. Which medication is used to treat serotonin syndrome by antagonizing serotonin
receptors?
A. Metoclopramide
B. Cyproheptadine (correct)
C. Naloxone
D. Physostigmine
Rationale: Cyproheptadine is an antihistamine with anti-serotonergic activity used
to treat serotonin syndrome.
11. Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?
A. Methyldopa
B. Labetalol
C. ACE inhibitors (e.g., enalapril) (correct)
D. Nifedipine
Rationale: ACE inhibitors are associated with fetal renal damage and other
congenital issues and should be avoided in pregnancy.
12. A patient on a statin complains of muscle pain and weakness. The nurse should
assess which lab?
A. Serum creatinine
B. CBC
C. Creatine kinase (CK) (correct)
D. ALT only
Rationale: Statin-associated myopathy can be monitored by checking CK levels;
severe cases (rhabdomyolysis) require stopping the drug.
13. Which of the following is an expected anticholinergic side effect?
A. Diarrhea
B. Dry mouth (correct)
C. Miosis
D. Excessive sweating
Rationale: Anticholinergic drugs decrease secretions and smooth muscle activity,
leading to dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and blurred vision.
