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NR293/NR 293 Pharmacology for Nursing Exam 2| Actual Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2025/2026 (Graded A+)- Chamberlain

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NR293/NR 293 Pharmacology for Nursing Exam 2| Actual Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2025/2026 (Graded A+)- Chamberlain












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Subido en
20 de septiembre de 2025
Número de páginas
194
Escrito en
2025/2026
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Examen
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NR293/NR 293 Pharmacology for
Nursing Exam 2| Actual Questions and
Answers Latest Updated (Graded A+)-
Chamberlain

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NR293/NR 293 Pharmacology for Nursing Exam 2


1 of 129

Term


A patient is to receive iron dextran injections. Which technique is
appropriate when the nurse is administering this medication?


a. Intravenous administration mixed with 5% dextrose
b. Intramuscular injection in the upper arm
c. Intramuscular injection using the Z-track method
d. Subcutaneous injection into the abdomen

,Give this one a try later!



b. Instruct the patient to take the medication through a plastic straw.


Liquid oral forms of iron need to be taken through a plastic straw to avoid
discoloration of tooth enamel. Milk may decrease absorption.




c. Protamine sulfate


Protamine sulfate is a specific heparin antidote and forms a complex with heparin,
completely reversing its anticoagulant properties. Vitamin K is the antidote for
warfarin (Coumadin) overdose. The other options are incorrect.




c. To dissolve the clot in the coronary artery


Thrombolytic drugs lyse, or dissolve, thrombi. They are not used to prevent further
clot formation or to control bleeding. As a result of dissolving of the thrombi, chest
pain may be relieved, but that is not the primary purpose of thrombolytic therapy.




c. Intramuscular injection using the Z-track method

Intramuscular iron is given using the Z-track method deep into a large muscle
mass. If given intravenously, it is given with normal saline, not 5% dextrose.


Don't know?




2 of 129

Definition


d. The specific cause of the anemia needs to be determined before
treatment.

,Folic acid should not be used to treat anemias until the underlying
cause and type of anemia have been identified. Administering folic
acid to a patient with pernicious anemia may correct the hematologic
changes of anemia, but the symptoms of pernicious anemia (which is
due to a vitamin B12 deficiency, not a folic acid deficiency) may be
deceptively masked. The other options are incorrect.



Give this one a try later!



The nurse is administering folic acid to a patient with a new diagnosis of
anemia. Which statement about treatment with folic acid is true?


a. Folic acid is used to treat any type of anemia.
b. Folic acid is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia.
c. Folic acid is used to treat pernicious anemia.
d. The specific cause of the anemia needs to be determined before treatment.




The nurse is giving intravenous nitroglycerin to a patient who has just been admitted
because of an acute myocardial infarction. Which statement is true regarding the
administration of the intravenous form of this medication?
a. The solution will be slightly colored green or blue.
b. The intravenous form is given by bolus injection.
c. It can be given in infusions with other medications.
d. Non-polyvinylchloride (non-PVC) plastic intravenous bags and tubing must be
used.




A nurse is giving instructions to a patient who will be receiving oral iron
supplements. Which instructions will be included in the teaching plan?

a. Take the iron tablets with milk or antacids.
b. Crush the pills as needed to help with swallowing.

, c. Take the iron tablets with meals if gastrointestinal distress occurs.
d. If black tarry stools occur, report it to the doctor immediately.


The nurse is administering intravenous iron dextran for the first time to a patient with
anemia. After giving a test dose, how long will the nurse wait before administering
the remaining portion of the dose?


a. 30 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 6 hours
d. 24 hours


Don't know?




3 of 129

Term


A patient has had recent mechanical heart valve surgery and is
receiving anticoagulant therapy. While monitoring the patient's
laboratory work, the nurse interprets that the patient's international
normalized ratio (INR) level of 3 indicates that:


a. the patient is not receiving enough warfarin to have a therapeutic
effect.
b. the patient's warfarin dose is at therapeutic levels.
c. the patient's intravenous heparin dose is dangerously high.
d. the patient's intravenous heparin dose is at therapeutic levels.



Give this one a try later!

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