pathophysiology midterm COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/2026
A 23-year-old man has received a recent diagnosis of appendicitis. The nurse providing
care for the man is explaining that the inflammation of his appendix is playing a role in his
body's fight against the underlying infectious process. Which teaching points should the
nurse eliminate from client education? A. "Inflammation can help to remove the body
tissue cells that have been damaged by infection." B. "Inflammation will start your body on
the path to growing new, healthy tissue at the site of infection." C. "Inflammation helps your
body to produce the right antibodies to fight the infection." D. "Inflammation ultimately aids
in eliminating the initial cause of the cell injury in your appendix." Correct Answer Answer:
C Rationale: Antibody production is not a noted component of the inflammatory response.
Removing damaged cells, generating new tissue, and eliminating the cause of cell injury
are all documented components of the inflammatory response.
A client presented to the emergency department of the hospital with a swollen, reddened,
painful leg wound and has been diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA) cellulitis. The client's physician has ordered a complete blood count and
white cell differential. Which blood component would the physician most likely anticipate
to be elevated? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Platelets D. Neutrophils Correct Answer
Answer: D Rationale: Increased neutrophils are associated with inflammation, in general,
and bacterial infections in particular. Platelets play a role in inflammation but their levels
would not rise to the same extent as would neutrophils. Eosinophils are not strongly
associated with bacterial infection and basophils would not increase to the same degree
as neutrophils.
A 16-year-old girl has broken her arm while snowboarding and is shocked at the amount of
swelling at the injury site. Which statement best explains the physiologic rationale for her
swelling? A. Migration and proliferation of mast cells, neutrophils, and platelets to the
injury site occupy an increased volume of tissue. B. Potent vasodilation increases the total
volume of vascular space at the site of inflammation. C. Osmotic flow of plasma into the
intravascular space causes increased blood volume and interstitial fluid. D. Loss of plasma
proteins causes an increase in interstitial osmotic pressure. Correct Answer Rationale:
Swelling is the result of plasma proteins leaving the interstitial space, resulting in increased
osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid and movement of fluid into tissues. Neither blood
components, vasodilation, nor increased intravascular volume account for swelling.
,pathophysiology midterm COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/2026
Which phenomena best accounts for the increased presence of leukocytes at the site of
inflammation? A. Existing leukocytes stick to the epithelial cells and move along blood
vessel walls. B. Increased numbers of leukocytes are released into circulation via cytokine
stimulation. C. Leukocytes are osmotically drawn from circulation into the interstitial
space as a result of swelling. D. Epithelium expresses leukocyte stimulation factors in
response to cell injury. Correct Answer Answer: A Rationale: During inflammation,
leukocytes accumulate at the point of epithelial contact in the processes of margination,
adhesion, and transmigration. This is not directly achieved by way of increased leukocyte
production or release, nor by osmotic pressure. The epithelium does not produce
leukocyte stimulation factors.
When explaining the final stages of the inflammatory response to pathogens, the nurse
should include which educational topics? PRIMEXAM.COM A. How the body can kill the
pathogen by generating toxic oxygen and nitrogen products, producing such things as nitric
oxide and hydrogen peroxide B. Margination, which is a process whereby white cells
(leukocytes) stick to the endothelium and accumulate along the blood vessel C. The
increase in vascular permeability, which lets fluids leak into the extravascular tissues D.
The promotion of tissue regeneration, whereby monocytes and macrophages produce
potent prostaglandins and leukotrienes. Correct Answer Answer: A Rationale: The latter
stages of phagocytosis result in intracellular killing of pathogens, accomplished by several
mechanisms, including toxic oxygen and nitrogen products, lysozymes, proteases, and
defensins. The metabolic burst pathways generate toxic oxygen and nitrogen products
(e.g., nitric oxide, hydrogen peroxide, and hypochlorous acid). Margination is the early
stages of the inflammatory response. Vascular changes occur with inflammation but are
prior to the final stage. Macrophages arrive within hours at the inflammation site.
A deficiency in which of these would result in an inhibition of the inflammatory response?
A. Histamine B. Helper T cells C. B cells D. Vitamin K Correct Answer Rationale:
Histamine is a key mediator in the inflammatory system, unlike helper T cells, B cells, or
vitamin K.
,pathophysiology midterm COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/2026
When educating a client with a wound that is not healing, the nurse should stress which
dietary modifications to ward off some of the negative manifestations that can occur with
inflammation? A. Increase the amount of calcium in the diet, especially drinking milk and
eating cheese. B. This is the one time whereby you should eat more fat (both
polyunsaturated and saturated) so you can absorb more fat-soluble vitamins. C. Since
there is a loss of plasma proteins, you should increase your intake of organ meats like liver.
D. Increase your intake of oily fish and fish oil so that you will increase absorption of
omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids. Correct Answer Answer: D Rationale: Dietary
modification of the inflammatory response through the use of omega-3 polyunsaturated
fatty acids, specifically eicosatetraenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid, which are
present in oily fish and fish oil, may be effective in preventing some negative manifestations
of inflammation.
Tumor necrosis factor-α and IL-1 are major cytokines that mediate inflammation. If the
client is developing a systemic response to an infection, the nurse will likely assess which
clinical manifestations? Select all that apply. A. Elevated temperature B. Hypertension C.
Tachycardia D. Decrease in urine output E. Anorexia Correct Answer Answer: A, C, E
Rationale: IL-1 and TNF-α are mediators of the acute-phase responses associated with
infection or injury. Features of these systemic responses include fever [elevated
temperature], hypotension, tachycardia [increased heart rate], anorexia, increase in
neutrophil count, and increased levels of corticosteroid hormones.
A 63-year-old woman has begun a diet that purports to minimize the quantity and effects of
free radicals in her body. Which physiologic process could best underlie her care provider's
teaching about her new diet? A. Free radicals act as direct mediators in the inflammatory
process. B. Free radicals inhibit the inflammatory response, limiting pre-adaptive response
to infection. C. Free radicals increase cytokine expression and adhesion molecule levels,
resulting in increased inflammation. D. Free radicals contribute to atherosclerosis and
decreased immune response. Correct Answer Answer: C Rationale: Free radicals are
thought to bring about an inappropriate inflammatory response by increasing cytokine and
numbers of adhesion molecules. They are not direct mediators of inflammation and are not
associated with decreased immune response, but rather inappropriate inflammation. Free
radicals are not associated with inhibition of the inflammatory response.
, pathophysiology midterm COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/2026
A nurse is changing the wound dressing on a coccyx-region pressure injury of an
immobilized client. The existing dressing is saturated with both watery, clear discharge and
foul, grayish-colored liquid. Which entry in the client's chart most accurately documents
these findings?
A. "Large amounts of suppurative and serous exudates noted." B. "Purulent discharge and
fibrinous exudates noted on existing dressing." C. "Abscess activity noted to coccyx
wound." D. "Plasma proteins and membranous exudates present on existing dressing."
Correct Answer Answer: A Rationale: Serous discharge is clear and low in plasma
proteins, while suppurative (or purulent) exudates are a mass of degraded cells. An
abscess would be physically contained with no discharge, and the exudate is neither
fibrinous nor membranous.
Which aspect of a client's site of inflammation would help the care provider rule out
chronic inflammation?
A. High levels of macrophages B. Increased neutrophils C. Proliferation of fibroblasts D.
Infiltration of lymphocytes Correct Answer Answer: B Rationale: Chronic inflammation
lacks the sudden and marked proliferation of neutrophils that is associated with acute
inflammation. Chronic inflammation is associated with increased presence and action of
fibroblasts, macrophages, and lymphocytes.
A 24-year-old woman presents with fever and painful, swollen cervical lymph nodes. Her
blood work indicates neutrophilia with a shift to the left. She most likely has:
A. A mild parasitic infection B. A severe bacterial infection C. A mild viral infection D. A
severe fungal infection Correct Answer Answer: B Rationale: Fever and painful, palpable
lymph nodes are nonspecific inflammatory conditions; leukocytosis is also common but is
a particular hallmark of bacterial infection. Neutrophilia also indicates a bacterial
infection, whereas increased levels of other leukocytes would indicate other etiologies. The
shift to the left—the presence of many immature neutrophils—indicates that the infection
is severe, because the demand for neutrophils exceeds the supply of mature cells.
ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/2026
A 23-year-old man has received a recent diagnosis of appendicitis. The nurse providing
care for the man is explaining that the inflammation of his appendix is playing a role in his
body's fight against the underlying infectious process. Which teaching points should the
nurse eliminate from client education? A. "Inflammation can help to remove the body
tissue cells that have been damaged by infection." B. "Inflammation will start your body on
the path to growing new, healthy tissue at the site of infection." C. "Inflammation helps your
body to produce the right antibodies to fight the infection." D. "Inflammation ultimately aids
in eliminating the initial cause of the cell injury in your appendix." Correct Answer Answer:
C Rationale: Antibody production is not a noted component of the inflammatory response.
Removing damaged cells, generating new tissue, and eliminating the cause of cell injury
are all documented components of the inflammatory response.
A client presented to the emergency department of the hospital with a swollen, reddened,
painful leg wound and has been diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA) cellulitis. The client's physician has ordered a complete blood count and
white cell differential. Which blood component would the physician most likely anticipate
to be elevated? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Platelets D. Neutrophils Correct Answer
Answer: D Rationale: Increased neutrophils are associated with inflammation, in general,
and bacterial infections in particular. Platelets play a role in inflammation but their levels
would not rise to the same extent as would neutrophils. Eosinophils are not strongly
associated with bacterial infection and basophils would not increase to the same degree
as neutrophils.
A 16-year-old girl has broken her arm while snowboarding and is shocked at the amount of
swelling at the injury site. Which statement best explains the physiologic rationale for her
swelling? A. Migration and proliferation of mast cells, neutrophils, and platelets to the
injury site occupy an increased volume of tissue. B. Potent vasodilation increases the total
volume of vascular space at the site of inflammation. C. Osmotic flow of plasma into the
intravascular space causes increased blood volume and interstitial fluid. D. Loss of plasma
proteins causes an increase in interstitial osmotic pressure. Correct Answer Rationale:
Swelling is the result of plasma proteins leaving the interstitial space, resulting in increased
osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid and movement of fluid into tissues. Neither blood
components, vasodilation, nor increased intravascular volume account for swelling.
,pathophysiology midterm COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/2026
Which phenomena best accounts for the increased presence of leukocytes at the site of
inflammation? A. Existing leukocytes stick to the epithelial cells and move along blood
vessel walls. B. Increased numbers of leukocytes are released into circulation via cytokine
stimulation. C. Leukocytes are osmotically drawn from circulation into the interstitial
space as a result of swelling. D. Epithelium expresses leukocyte stimulation factors in
response to cell injury. Correct Answer Answer: A Rationale: During inflammation,
leukocytes accumulate at the point of epithelial contact in the processes of margination,
adhesion, and transmigration. This is not directly achieved by way of increased leukocyte
production or release, nor by osmotic pressure. The epithelium does not produce
leukocyte stimulation factors.
When explaining the final stages of the inflammatory response to pathogens, the nurse
should include which educational topics? PRIMEXAM.COM A. How the body can kill the
pathogen by generating toxic oxygen and nitrogen products, producing such things as nitric
oxide and hydrogen peroxide B. Margination, which is a process whereby white cells
(leukocytes) stick to the endothelium and accumulate along the blood vessel C. The
increase in vascular permeability, which lets fluids leak into the extravascular tissues D.
The promotion of tissue regeneration, whereby monocytes and macrophages produce
potent prostaglandins and leukotrienes. Correct Answer Answer: A Rationale: The latter
stages of phagocytosis result in intracellular killing of pathogens, accomplished by several
mechanisms, including toxic oxygen and nitrogen products, lysozymes, proteases, and
defensins. The metabolic burst pathways generate toxic oxygen and nitrogen products
(e.g., nitric oxide, hydrogen peroxide, and hypochlorous acid). Margination is the early
stages of the inflammatory response. Vascular changes occur with inflammation but are
prior to the final stage. Macrophages arrive within hours at the inflammation site.
A deficiency in which of these would result in an inhibition of the inflammatory response?
A. Histamine B. Helper T cells C. B cells D. Vitamin K Correct Answer Rationale:
Histamine is a key mediator in the inflammatory system, unlike helper T cells, B cells, or
vitamin K.
,pathophysiology midterm COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/2026
When educating a client with a wound that is not healing, the nurse should stress which
dietary modifications to ward off some of the negative manifestations that can occur with
inflammation? A. Increase the amount of calcium in the diet, especially drinking milk and
eating cheese. B. This is the one time whereby you should eat more fat (both
polyunsaturated and saturated) so you can absorb more fat-soluble vitamins. C. Since
there is a loss of plasma proteins, you should increase your intake of organ meats like liver.
D. Increase your intake of oily fish and fish oil so that you will increase absorption of
omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids. Correct Answer Answer: D Rationale: Dietary
modification of the inflammatory response through the use of omega-3 polyunsaturated
fatty acids, specifically eicosatetraenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid, which are
present in oily fish and fish oil, may be effective in preventing some negative manifestations
of inflammation.
Tumor necrosis factor-α and IL-1 are major cytokines that mediate inflammation. If the
client is developing a systemic response to an infection, the nurse will likely assess which
clinical manifestations? Select all that apply. A. Elevated temperature B. Hypertension C.
Tachycardia D. Decrease in urine output E. Anorexia Correct Answer Answer: A, C, E
Rationale: IL-1 and TNF-α are mediators of the acute-phase responses associated with
infection or injury. Features of these systemic responses include fever [elevated
temperature], hypotension, tachycardia [increased heart rate], anorexia, increase in
neutrophil count, and increased levels of corticosteroid hormones.
A 63-year-old woman has begun a diet that purports to minimize the quantity and effects of
free radicals in her body. Which physiologic process could best underlie her care provider's
teaching about her new diet? A. Free radicals act as direct mediators in the inflammatory
process. B. Free radicals inhibit the inflammatory response, limiting pre-adaptive response
to infection. C. Free radicals increase cytokine expression and adhesion molecule levels,
resulting in increased inflammation. D. Free radicals contribute to atherosclerosis and
decreased immune response. Correct Answer Answer: C Rationale: Free radicals are
thought to bring about an inappropriate inflammatory response by increasing cytokine and
numbers of adhesion molecules. They are not direct mediators of inflammation and are not
associated with decreased immune response, but rather inappropriate inflammation. Free
radicals are not associated with inhibition of the inflammatory response.
, pathophysiology midterm COMPLETE
ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/2026
A nurse is changing the wound dressing on a coccyx-region pressure injury of an
immobilized client. The existing dressing is saturated with both watery, clear discharge and
foul, grayish-colored liquid. Which entry in the client's chart most accurately documents
these findings?
A. "Large amounts of suppurative and serous exudates noted." B. "Purulent discharge and
fibrinous exudates noted on existing dressing." C. "Abscess activity noted to coccyx
wound." D. "Plasma proteins and membranous exudates present on existing dressing."
Correct Answer Answer: A Rationale: Serous discharge is clear and low in plasma
proteins, while suppurative (or purulent) exudates are a mass of degraded cells. An
abscess would be physically contained with no discharge, and the exudate is neither
fibrinous nor membranous.
Which aspect of a client's site of inflammation would help the care provider rule out
chronic inflammation?
A. High levels of macrophages B. Increased neutrophils C. Proliferation of fibroblasts D.
Infiltration of lymphocytes Correct Answer Answer: B Rationale: Chronic inflammation
lacks the sudden and marked proliferation of neutrophils that is associated with acute
inflammation. Chronic inflammation is associated with increased presence and action of
fibroblasts, macrophages, and lymphocytes.
A 24-year-old woman presents with fever and painful, swollen cervical lymph nodes. Her
blood work indicates neutrophilia with a shift to the left. She most likely has:
A. A mild parasitic infection B. A severe bacterial infection C. A mild viral infection D. A
severe fungal infection Correct Answer Answer: B Rationale: Fever and painful, palpable
lymph nodes are nonspecific inflammatory conditions; leukocytosis is also common but is
a particular hallmark of bacterial infection. Neutrophilia also indicates a bacterial
infection, whereas increased levels of other leukocytes would indicate other etiologies. The
shift to the left—the presence of many immature neutrophils—indicates that the infection
is severe, because the demand for neutrophils exceeds the supply of mature cells.
