PEAT EXAM 4 STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS <LATEST VERSION>

PEAT EXAM 4 STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS &lt;LATEST VERSION&gt; 1. Which of the following is an ABNORMAL response to aerobic exercise? 1. Increase in respiratory rate 2. Decrease in systolic blood pressure 3. Increase in pulse rate 4. Minimal change in diastolic pressure - ANSWER 2. Decrease in systolic blood pressure 2. If a patient is able to resist moderate pressure against elbow flexion during seated muscle testing, the elbow flexor strength should be documented as: 1. Good (4/5). 2. Normal (5/5). 3. Poor (2/5). 4. Fair (3/5). - ANSWER 1. Good (4/5). 3. A patient who has a history of myelomeningocele has no response to sensation testing below the umbilicus. The level of lesion is MOST likely: 1. T10-T11. 2. L1-L2. 3. L3-L4. 4. L5-S1. - ANSWER 1. T10-T11. 4. A 14-month-old child who has brachial nerve palsy exhibits motor and sensory loss in the right upper extremity in the areas innervated by C5 and C6. Which of the following activities is MOST difficult for the patient to accomplish with the affected upper extremity? 1. Pushing a wagon 2. Carrying a teddy bear in the crook of the arm 3. Holding a raisin in the palm of the hand 4. Grasping a cup - ANSWER 2. Carrying a teddy bear in the crook of the arm 5. The body responds to an acute drop in cardiac output, or heart failure, by compensating in which of the following ways? 1. Bradycardia, increase in blood volume 2. Bradycardia, ventricular atrophy 3. Tachycardia, increase in blood volume 4. Tachycardia, ventricular atrophy - ANSWER 3. Tachycardia, increase in blood volume 6. A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient who had a right total hip arthroplasty and is restricted to partial weight-bearing status. The patient is unable to follow the weight-bearing precautions because of dementia. Which of the following courses of action is MOST appropriate for the assistant? 1. Consult with the evaluating physical therapist and recommend discharge of the patient from physical therapy services because the patient is unable to follow instructions. 2. Continue with the current plan of care for 2 more days to see if the patient shows some improvement. 3. Continue with the current plan of care for 2 more days, then consult with the evaluating physical therapist to recommend change of the assistive device. 4. Consult with the evaluating physical therapist and discuss contacting the physician about changing the weight-bearing status or discontinuing gait training. - ANSWER 4. Consult with the evaluating physical therapist and discuss contacting the physician about changing the weight-bearing status or discontinuing gait training. 7. A patient's plan of care calls for a physical therapist assistant to instruct the patient in the exercise shown in the photograph and to provide transverse friction massage at the origin of the common wrist extensors. The patient MOST likely has which of the following conditions? 1. Medial epicondylalgia 2. Cubital tunnel syndrome 3. Lateral epicondylalgia 4. Carpal tunnel syndrome 8. ( the wrist is flexed with other hand over top of it) - ANSWER 3. Lateral epicondylalgia 9. The parent of a 2-year-old child who has T8 myelomeningocele asks the physical therapist assistant if the child should wear shoes when braces are removed during playtime. Which of the following responses is MOST appropriate? 1. Yes, because the shoes will make the child more aware of foot positions. 2. Yes, because the shoes will protect the feet from injury. 3. No, because the feet do not need support in non-weight-bearing positions. 4. No, because the child will be more comfortable without shoes. - ANSWER 2. Yes, because the shoes will protect the feet from injury. 10. A patient asks how a transcutaneous nerve stimulator set up in low-rate mode decreases pain. Which of the following mechanisms BEST describes how this form of electrical stimulation works? 1. Thermal effects of the intervention increase blood flow to the painful area. 2. The intervention restores the flow of energy through the meridians of the body. 3. The electrical impulses stimulate the release of the body's natural opiates. 4. The electrical impulses reach the spinal cord before the pain impulses, blocking the pain signals from reaching the brain. - ANSWER 3. The electrical impulses stimulate the release of the body's natural opiates. 11. A postsurgical patient is referred for strengthening exercises for hip extension combined with passive range of motion exercises for hip flexion for the same limb in the pool. How should the physical therapist assistant instruct the patient to exercise in the water? 1. Stand on the uninvolved leg. Allow the involved-side knee to float up toward the surface. Push the foot back down to the bottom of the pool. 2. Stand on the involved leg. Bend the uninvolved hip and knee to perform a mini-squat. Relax and float back up into standing. 3. Stand on the uninvolved leg. Allow the involved leg to float to the side toward the surface. Push the foot back down to the bottom of the pool. 4. Stand on the involved leg. Allow the uninvolved knee to float up toward the surface. Push the foot down to the bottom of the pool. - ANSWER 1. Stand on the uninvolved leg. Allow the involved-side knee to float up toward the surface. Push the foot back down to the bottom of the pool. 5. A patient reports dizziness and blurred vision when walking and turning the head to either the left or the right. The patient has no problem when the head is kept still while walking. Which of the following systems is MOST likely involved? 6. Visual 7. Vestibular 8. Somatosensory 9. Musculoskeletal - ANSWER 2 10. Since the patient does not have symptoms while looking straight ahead, the visual acuity (peripheral visual system) does not appear to be at fault. A patient who reports visual blurring with head motion is experiencing oscillopsia. Oscillopsia is a visual instability with head movement in which images appear to move or bounce. It is often due to decreased vestibulo ocular reflex. No information is given in the question to suggest that the patient is having difficulty with somatosensory input or that indicates musculoskeletal deficits. 11. A physical therapist is preparing for gait training with a young adult patient with paraplegia. Which of the following gait training options is MOST appropriate for the patient's first session? Swing-through gait pattern with a walker Swing-through gait pattern with forearm crutches Swing-to gait pattern with axillary crutches Swing-to gait pattern in the parallel bars - ANSWER 4 Option 1 is an inappropriate assistive device for a young adult with paraplegia. Option 2 is the ultimate goal of gait training but would be too difficult for the patient's first attempt. Option 3 is not the most efficient gait aide for a patient with paraplegia. The first-time session of gait training for a patient with paraplegia should be in the parallel bars. A swing-to gait pattern would be the easiest for the patient to learn initially. 12. A physical therapist is treating a patient with chronic range of motion limitation due to tight hamstrings. Which of the following applications of ultrasound and stretching is BEST to restore normal range of motion? Pulsed ultrasound at 1 MHz with onset of stretching 10 minutes after the ultrasound treatment Pulsed ultrasound at 1 MHz with stretching for 10 minutes during and immediately after the ultrasound treatment Continuous ultrasound at 1 MHz with onset of stretching 10 minutes after the ultrasound treatment Continuous ultrasound at 1 MHz with stretching for 10 minutes during and immediately after the ultrasound treatment - ANSWER 4 Stretching should be done during and immediately after the ultrasound treatment. 1 MHz continuous ultrasound provides the greatest thermal effects and would facilitate the stretch. 13. During an initial physical therapy evaluation, a patient reports occasional breathlessness. Which of the following patient reports indicates the PRIMARY need for a more thorough pulmonary examination by the physical therapist? There is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. The symptoms are relieved by leaning forward. There has been a recent change in physical activities. The breathlessness is associated with light-headedness - ANSWER 2 Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is common in severe heart disease. Relieving the breathlessness symptoms by a positional change is suggestive that the problem is pulmonary in origin. Occasional breathlessness may be expected with a change in physical activities, but more history should be taken to determine if the change is expected. Light-headedness is more indicative of a cardiac problem. 14. A 90-year-old hospitalized patient was referred for physical therapy evaluation and intervention following a C5 fracture secondary to a fall. The patient describes neck pain and left knee pain but reports no other postinjury changes in the extremities. The rehabilitation prognosis for the patient should PRIMARILY be based on: prior level of function. left knee range of motion. use of a cervical collar. upper extremity sensory integrity. - ANSWER 1 Understanding a patient's prior level of function is the most critical factor in a patient's history to determine a reasonable prognosis, as this information establishes the baseline for recovery. Although knee range of motion and upper extremity sensory integrity should be monitored, neither is more critical than prior level of function as a determinant of prognosis. Although a cervical collar is a potential intervention, its use is not more critical than prior level of function as a determinant of prognosis. 15. During examination of a patient, a physical therapist visually observes signs of Charcot disease. Which of the following signs or symptoms would MOST likely be present and consistent with this diagnosis? Erythema Sharp or stabbing pain in the forefoot Increased sensitivity to touch Open ulcer over the second metatarsal head - ANSWER 1 A Charcot joint is painless and usually undetected by the patient secondary to decreased sensation and neuropathy. Because of the increase in blood flow, patients present with erythema. 16. A physical therapist is reviewing the medical record of a patient in the intensive care unit. The patient was admitted the previous night through the emergency department after a motorcycle accident resulting in a fractured right femur. The therapist notes a physician's order for a Doppler study of the left leg. The therapist should: proceed with the evaluation and intervention without any changes. withhold physical therapy until results of the study are obtained and interpreted by the physician. proceed with the evaluation and limit intervention to transfer to a bedside chair. obtain clearance from the nurse to provide intervention for the patient. - ANSWER 2 A complete physical therapy evaluation and treatment is contraindicated due to a possible deep vein thrombosis. A physician's order for a Doppler study indicates possible deep vein thrombosis, so the physical therapy should not be conducted until the Dopler study is completed and the results analyzed by the physician. Transfer from bed to chair is contraindicated due to possible deep vein thrombosis. The nurse alone should not be providing clearance, until the Doppler study has been completed and interpreted. 17. A physical therapist is working with an outpatient who had a cerebrovascular accident and currently lives in an assisted-living facility. Which of the following statements is the MOST appropriate functional goal for this patient? The patient will be able to don an ankle-foot orthosis with assistance. The patient will independently walk 165 ft (50 m) with a straight cane from the bedroom to the cafeteria. The patient will have Normal (5/5) strength of the quadriceps muscles. The patient's balance will improve to be able to independently stand on the involved lower extremity for 20 seconds. - ANSWER 2 The goal in option 2 is the only goal that is objective, measurable, and functional. The goals in options 1, 3, and 4 lack function or specific measurable objective information. 18. A physical therapist is examining a patient with congestive heart disease who takes diuretics. Which of the following lower extremity conditions is MOST likely? Pallor Shiny skin Pitting edema Absence of hair growth - ANSWER 3 When the right side of the heart starts to fail, fluid collects in the feet and lower legs, causing pitting edema. Pallor, shiny skin, and absence of hair growth are characteristic of arterial disease, but not associated with congestive heart failure. 19. A physical therapist is examining the integumentary system of a patient and notes an area of black, hardened eschar on the tip of the first toe. The therapist would MOST likely conclude that the patient has which of the following conditions? Frostbite Diabetes Only superficial damage of the skin at that site At least full-thickness damage of the skin at that site - ANSWER 4 The presence of black necrotic tissue indicates full-thickness loss of the skin. The cause of the necrosis cannot be determined with the information in the stem. 20. A physical therapist is prescribing an exercise program to assist a patient in a weight loss program. The patient has type 1 diabetes. The patient should be advised to begin an exercise session only if the blood glucose level is: below 60 mg/dL. above 250 mg/dL. between 60 and 100 mg/dL. between 100 and 250 mg/dL. - ANSWER 4 If a person begins exercise when blood glucose is below 100 mg/dL or above 250 mg/dL, significant exercise-related complications may result. 21. In planning a physical therapy program for geriatric patients, an important age-related change that should be taken into consideration is: the inability to learn new motor tasks. decreased pain sensation. decreased motivation. the inability to select alternative movement strategies. - ANSWER 2 Neurological changes that are age related include decreased pain and vibratory sensation. The other changes listed do not normally occur with aging in the absence of pathology. 22. A physical therapist is examining the integumentary system of a patient with dark skin pigmentation and notices a deepening of the skin color over the left posterior aspect of the calcaneus. Which of the following findings would indicate a Stage I pressure ulcer at that site? Decreased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue Increased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue Blanching with applied pressure that returns to previous coloring within 30 seconds after the removal of pressure Blanching with applied pressure that returns to previous coloring 1 hour after the removal of pressure - ANSWER 1 The onset of a Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by nonblanching erythema and decreased skin temperature over the site of the ulcer. Because blanching is difficult to ascertain in patients with dark skin, use of skin temperature for assessment of pressure ulcers is preferred. 23. A physical therapist is studying the effects of three treatments of ataxia. Patients were recruited from a local clinic and were randomly assigned to one of the three treatment conditions. Functional measurements were taken at 6 months after the start of treatment. Which of the following statistical tests is MOST appropriate for data analysis in this study? Factorial analysis of variance One-way analysis of variance Independent sample t-test Repeated-measure t-test - ANSWER 2 In a single-factor experiment, the one-way analysis of variance is applied when three or more independent group means are compared. The descriptor one-way indicates that the design involves one independent variable, which is the case in the present scenario. All subjects were recruited from the same clinic and underwent the same length of treatment. The only difference among the three groups of subjects was the treatment group to which they were assigned. 24. A physical therapist is evaluating the cranial nerves of a child who has a medulloblastoma. The child's right eye deviates medially. The child has impairment of which of the following cranial nerves? Oculomotor (III) Trochlear (IV) Abducens (VI) Vagus (X) - ANSWER 3 The oculomotor nerve (III) controls the inferiomedial eye muscles. The trochlear nerve (IV) controls inferiolateral eye movement. The abducens nerve (VI) controls lateral eye movement. Damage to this nerve causes the eyeball to deviate medially due to weakness of the lateral rectus muscle. The vagus nerve (X) does not control the eye muscles. 25. A physical therapist is preparing to teach a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome to transfer from wheelchair to mat table. The patient weighs 150 lb (68 kg) and has Poor (2/5) strength in both of the lower extremities and Fair (4/5) strength in the left upper extremity. The right upper extremity has Normal (5/5) strength. Which of the following assisted transfers is MOST appropriate for the patient's initial session? Two-person lift to the right side Sliding-board transfer to the right side Hydraulic lift from wheelchair to mat Full standing-pivot transfer to the right side - ANSWER 2 Because the patient has significant weakness in both lower extremities, a standing pivot transfer would not be safe. However, since the patient does have fair to normal upper extremity strength and is not totally dependent, a hydraulic lift or two-person lift would not be appropriate because it would not enhance the patient's functional skills. The most appropriate transfer method would be for the patient to use a sliding board transfer to the strongest (right) side. 26. A physical therapist has been working with a patient who has a spinal cord injury. To document that the patient has been educated about skin care, the therapist should record that the patient: is unable to tolerate more than 1 hour in a wheelchair. has good strength of the scapular depressors and elbow extensors. is able to state three causes of skin breakdown. is able to perform 10 push-ups in the wheelchair. - ANSWER 3 Option 3 is the only one stated clearly in educational terms. The other options are objectives based on observations. 27. Increased residual volume is LEAST likely to be a finding in pulmonary function testing of a patient with which of the following conditions? Atelectasis Bronchiectasis Chronic bronchitis Emphysema - ANSWER 1 Atelectasis occurs when one or more segments or lobes of the lung is collapsed. It often occurs following thoracic or upper abdominal surgery, when the patient has a reduced total lung capacity, functional residual capacity, and residual volume. Bronchiectasis is an abnormal dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles and results in increased residual volumes. The primary symptom of chronic bronchitis is chronic productive cough and results in increased residual volume. Emphysema usually results in significantly increased residual volumes. 28. During pregnancy, which of the following exercises is CONTRAINDICATED? Curl-ups Bridging Double leg lifts Deep breathing with forced expiration - ANSWER 3 During pregnancy and postpartum, the stretched abdominal muscles are unable to stabilize the lower back as the legs are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can overwork the abdominal muscles and cause damage to spinal joints.