1
NSG 6005 Week 3 Quiz 2025 Actual –
Complete Exam Questions & Correct
Answers | South University Version
1. What is the primary mechanism of action of lisinopril in treating hypertension?
A. Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors
B. Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme
C. Inhibits sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter
D. Blocks calcium channels
Correct Answer: B. Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, reduces blood pressure by inhibiting the
conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, decreasing vasoconstriction. This aligns
with South University’s NSG 6005 focus on cardiovascular pharmacology for advanced
practice nursing.
2. A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What is a key counseling point?
A. Take with a high-fat meal to enhance absorption
B. Monitor for signs of lactic acidosis
C. Expect weight gain as a common effect
D. Discontinue if blood glucose is normal
Correct Answer: B. Monitor for signs of lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin carries a rare risk of lactic acidosis, particularly in renal
impairment. Patients should report symptoms like muscle pain or weakness. Weight gain
is not typical, and discontinuation requires medical guidance, per South University’s
diabetes management objectives.
3. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for treating a community-acquired pneumonia in a
healthy adult?
A. Clindamycin
B. Azithromycin
C. Vancomycin
D. Gentamicin
Correct Answer: B. Azithromycin
Rationale: Azithromycin, a macrolide, is first-line for community-acquired pneumonia
due to its coverage of common pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae and atypical
organisms. Other options are less appropriate for outpatient treatment, per NSG 6005
infectious disease guidelines.
4. A patient reports a dry cough while taking lisinopril. What is the likely cause?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Bradykinin accumulation
C. Sodium retention
, 2
D. Hepatic toxicity
Correct Answer: B. Bradykinin accumulation
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril increase bradykinin levels, causing cough as a
common adverse effect. This is emphasized in South University’s pharmacology
curriculum for managing adverse drug reactions.
5. What is the mechanism of action of albuterol in asthma management?
A. Inhibits leukotriene receptors
B. Stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors
C. Reduces histamine release
D. Inhibits acetylcholine receptors
Correct Answer: B. Stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, causes bronchodilation by stimulating
beta-2 receptors in the airways, providing acute asthma relief, per NSG 6005 respiratory
pharmacology objectives.
6. A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which lab should be monitored?
A. Platelet count
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via INR (target 2–3 for atrial
fibrillation) to ensure therapeutic efficacy and safety, per South University’s
anticoagulation management standards.
7. Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with a sulfa allergy?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Glipizide
C. Doxycycline
D. Levofloxacin
Correct Answer: B. Glipizide
Rationale: Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, contains sulfa and is contraindicated in sulfa-
allergic patients due to hypersensitivity risk, per NSG 6005 pharmacology safety
guidelines.
8. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. When should it be taken?
A. With a high-fat meal
B. On an empty stomach in the morning
C. At bedtime with a snack
D. With other medications
Correct Answer: B. On an empty stomach in the morning
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach, 30–60 minutes before
breakfast, to avoid interference from food or drugs, per NSG 6005 thyroid pharmacology
standards.
9. What is the primary indication for prescribing sertraline in a patient with depression?
A. Acute symptom relief
B. Long-term mood stabilization
C. Seizure control
D. Pain management
, 3
Correct Answer: B. Long-term mood stabilization
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, is first-line for depression, providing long-term mood
stabilization after 4–6 weeks. It is not indicated for other uses, per NSG 6005
psychopharmacology objectives.
10. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed glipizide. What is the mechanism of action?
A. Inhibits hepatic glucose production
B. Stimulates insulin release from pancreas
C. Increases peripheral glucose uptake
D. Inhibits glucose absorption
Correct Answer: B. Stimulates insulin release from pancreas
Rationale: Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release insulin,
per NSG 6005 diabetes pharmacology standards.
11. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. What is a key monitoring
parameter?
A. Liver function tests
B. Blood glucose
C. Serum potassium
D. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A. Liver function tests
Rationale: Statins like atorvastatin can cause hepatotoxicity, requiring regular liver
function monitoring, per NSG 6005 lipid management guidelines.
12. Which medication is first-line for acute gout treatment?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Febuxostat
Correct Answer: B. Colchicine
Rationale: Colchicine reduces inflammation in acute gout by inhibiting microtubule
formation. Allopurinol and febuxostat are for long-term management, per NSG 6005
musculoskeletal pharmacology objectives.
13. A patient is prescribed omeprazole for GERD. What is a long-term adverse effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Increased fracture risk
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: B. Increased fracture risk
Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole reduce calcium absorption, increasing
fracture risk with prolonged use, per NSG 6005 gastrointestinal pharmacology standards.
14. Which antibiotic is most likely to cause C. difficile infection?
A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Levofloxacin
Correct Answer: B. Clindamycin
Rationale: Clindamycin disrupts gut flora, increasing C. difficile risk, a key
consideration in antibiotic prescribing, per NSG 6005 infectious disease guidelines.
NSG 6005 Week 3 Quiz 2025 Actual –
Complete Exam Questions & Correct
Answers | South University Version
1. What is the primary mechanism of action of lisinopril in treating hypertension?
A. Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors
B. Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme
C. Inhibits sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter
D. Blocks calcium channels
Correct Answer: B. Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, reduces blood pressure by inhibiting the
conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, decreasing vasoconstriction. This aligns
with South University’s NSG 6005 focus on cardiovascular pharmacology for advanced
practice nursing.
2. A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What is a key counseling point?
A. Take with a high-fat meal to enhance absorption
B. Monitor for signs of lactic acidosis
C. Expect weight gain as a common effect
D. Discontinue if blood glucose is normal
Correct Answer: B. Monitor for signs of lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin carries a rare risk of lactic acidosis, particularly in renal
impairment. Patients should report symptoms like muscle pain or weakness. Weight gain
is not typical, and discontinuation requires medical guidance, per South University’s
diabetes management objectives.
3. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for treating a community-acquired pneumonia in a
healthy adult?
A. Clindamycin
B. Azithromycin
C. Vancomycin
D. Gentamicin
Correct Answer: B. Azithromycin
Rationale: Azithromycin, a macrolide, is first-line for community-acquired pneumonia
due to its coverage of common pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae and atypical
organisms. Other options are less appropriate for outpatient treatment, per NSG 6005
infectious disease guidelines.
4. A patient reports a dry cough while taking lisinopril. What is the likely cause?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Bradykinin accumulation
C. Sodium retention
, 2
D. Hepatic toxicity
Correct Answer: B. Bradykinin accumulation
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril increase bradykinin levels, causing cough as a
common adverse effect. This is emphasized in South University’s pharmacology
curriculum for managing adverse drug reactions.
5. What is the mechanism of action of albuterol in asthma management?
A. Inhibits leukotriene receptors
B. Stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors
C. Reduces histamine release
D. Inhibits acetylcholine receptors
Correct Answer: B. Stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, causes bronchodilation by stimulating
beta-2 receptors in the airways, providing acute asthma relief, per NSG 6005 respiratory
pharmacology objectives.
6. A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which lab should be monitored?
A. Platelet count
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via INR (target 2–3 for atrial
fibrillation) to ensure therapeutic efficacy and safety, per South University’s
anticoagulation management standards.
7. Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with a sulfa allergy?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Glipizide
C. Doxycycline
D. Levofloxacin
Correct Answer: B. Glipizide
Rationale: Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, contains sulfa and is contraindicated in sulfa-
allergic patients due to hypersensitivity risk, per NSG 6005 pharmacology safety
guidelines.
8. A patient is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. When should it be taken?
A. With a high-fat meal
B. On an empty stomach in the morning
C. At bedtime with a snack
D. With other medications
Correct Answer: B. On an empty stomach in the morning
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach, 30–60 minutes before
breakfast, to avoid interference from food or drugs, per NSG 6005 thyroid pharmacology
standards.
9. What is the primary indication for prescribing sertraline in a patient with depression?
A. Acute symptom relief
B. Long-term mood stabilization
C. Seizure control
D. Pain management
, 3
Correct Answer: B. Long-term mood stabilization
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, is first-line for depression, providing long-term mood
stabilization after 4–6 weeks. It is not indicated for other uses, per NSG 6005
psychopharmacology objectives.
10. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed glipizide. What is the mechanism of action?
A. Inhibits hepatic glucose production
B. Stimulates insulin release from pancreas
C. Increases peripheral glucose uptake
D. Inhibits glucose absorption
Correct Answer: B. Stimulates insulin release from pancreas
Rationale: Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release insulin,
per NSG 6005 diabetes pharmacology standards.
11. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. What is a key monitoring
parameter?
A. Liver function tests
B. Blood glucose
C. Serum potassium
D. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A. Liver function tests
Rationale: Statins like atorvastatin can cause hepatotoxicity, requiring regular liver
function monitoring, per NSG 6005 lipid management guidelines.
12. Which medication is first-line for acute gout treatment?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Febuxostat
Correct Answer: B. Colchicine
Rationale: Colchicine reduces inflammation in acute gout by inhibiting microtubule
formation. Allopurinol and febuxostat are for long-term management, per NSG 6005
musculoskeletal pharmacology objectives.
13. A patient is prescribed omeprazole for GERD. What is a long-term adverse effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Increased fracture risk
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: B. Increased fracture risk
Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole reduce calcium absorption, increasing
fracture risk with prolonged use, per NSG 6005 gastrointestinal pharmacology standards.
14. Which antibiotic is most likely to cause C. difficile infection?
A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Levofloxacin
Correct Answer: B. Clindamycin
Rationale: Clindamycin disrupts gut flora, increasing C. difficile risk, a key
consideration in antibiotic prescribing, per NSG 6005 infectious disease guidelines.
