1. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128
mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
2. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At
what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia
is
most likely around 0930–1100.
3. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction
is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding
and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
4. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should
the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
, 5. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
6. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports
mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral
care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
7. What should the nurse include when teaching a client
taking
ferrous sulfate?
A. Take with milk
B. Take with food if GI upset occurs
C. Expect pale stools
D. Avoid vitamin C
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron can upset the stomach. If so, take with food
(but
not dairy). Vitamin C increases absorption.
8. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
9. A client takes aluminum hydroxide for GERD. What
adverse
effect should the nurse monitor?
mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk.
Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
2. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At
what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia
is
most likely around 0930–1100.
3. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction
is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding
and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
4. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should
the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
, 5. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH,
T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
6. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports
mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral
care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
7. What should the nurse include when teaching a client
taking
ferrous sulfate?
A. Take with milk
B. Take with food if GI upset occurs
C. Expect pale stools
D. Avoid vitamin C
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron can upset the stomach. If so, take with food
(but
not dairy). Vitamin C increases absorption.
8. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps.
Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads
to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
9. A client takes aluminum hydroxide for GERD. What
adverse
effect should the nurse monitor?
