CANYON UNIVERSITY 2025 REAL EXAM WITH 170+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+/ NUR 635
ACTUAL FINAL EXAM 2 GCU (BRAND NEW!!)
Question 1
Which of the following best describes the study of pharmacokinetics?
A. The study of how drugs produce their effects on the body.
B. The process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted.
C. The study of the chemical structure of drugs.
D. The process of developing and testing new medications.
Correct Answer: B) The process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and
excreted.
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a drug, encompassing the four
main processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination (ADME).
Pharmacodynamics, in contrast, is what the drug does to the body.
Question 2
A nurse practitioner is administering a medication and wants to achieve the highest possible
bioavailability. Which route of administration should be chosen?
A. Oral (PO)
B. Subcutaneous (SC)
C. Intramuscular (IM)
D. Intravenous (IV)
Correct Answer: D) Intravenous (IV)
Rationale: Bioavailability is the fraction of an administered drug that reaches the systemic
circulation. By definition, intravenous administration bypasses absorption barriers and
delivers 100% of the drug directly into the bloodstream, resulting in the highest
bioavailability.
Question 3
A drug has a half-life of 8 hours. If a patient begins taking this drug on a regular schedule,
approximately how long will it take to reach a steady state?
A. 8-12 hours
B. 16-24 hours
C. 32-40 hours
D. 48-60 hours
Correct Answer: C) 32-40 hours
Rationale: A drug reaches a steady state, where the rate of administration is equal to the
rate of elimination, after approximately 4 to 5 half-lives. For a drug with an 8-hour half-
life, this would be 8 hours x 4 = 32 hours to 8 hours x 5 = 40 hours.
, [Type here]
Question 4
A patient is taking a drug that is eliminated via zero-order (non-linear) pharmacokinetics. The
nurse practitioner understands this to mean that:
A. The rate of elimination is proportional to the drug concentration.
B. A constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit of time.
C. A constant amount of the drug is eliminated per unit of time, regardless of concentration.
D. The drug does not undergo metabolism in the liver.
Correct Answer: C) A constant amount of the drug is eliminated per unit of time, regardless
of concentration.
Rationale: In zero-order kinetics, the metabolic enzymes are saturated, so the rate of
elimination is constant and independent of the drug's concentration. This is in contrast to
first-order kinetics, where a constant proportion of the drug is eliminated over time.
Question 5
During which phase of drug development are human subjects first used to assess the safety,
dosage range, and side effects of a new medication?
A. Preclinical research
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3
Correct Answer: B) Phase 1
Rationale: Phase 1 trials are the first studies conducted in humans (usually a small group of
healthy volunteers) after preclinical animal testing. The primary goal of Phase 1 is to
evaluate the drug's safety, determine a safe dosage range, and identify side effects.
Question 6
A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. The therapeutic effect of this medication is
achieved through which mechanism of action?
A. Blocking angiotensin II receptors on blood vessels.
B. Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
C. Blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart.
D. Promoting the excretion of sodium and water.
Correct Answer: B) Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Rationale: Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It blocks the
ACE enzyme, which is responsible for converting the inactive angiotensin I into the potent
vasoconstrictor angiotensin II, thereby lowering blood pressure.
Question 7
A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops a persistent, dry, hacking cough. This common side
effect is primarily attributed to the accumulation of which substance?