1. A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed neostigmine.
Which finding indicates underdosing?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Diarrhea
D. Excessive salivation
Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness could indicate myasthenic crisis,
requiring dosage adjustment.
2. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia is
most likely around 0930–1100.
3. Which lab value should be monitored regularly for a client on
statins?
A. BUN
B. AST and ALT
C. Sodium
D. Hematocrit
,Answer: B
Rationale: Statins can cause liver damage. Monitor liver enzymes
(AST/ALT).
4. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128 mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk. Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
5. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
6. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
, C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
7. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during intercourse.
What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
8. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness. What
side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
9. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding is the
priority?
Which finding indicates underdosing?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Diarrhea
D. Excessive salivation
Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness could indicate myasthenic crisis,
requiring dosage adjustment.
2. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia is
most likely around 0930–1100.
3. Which lab value should be monitored regularly for a client on
statins?
A. BUN
B. AST and ALT
C. Sodium
D. Hematocrit
,Answer: B
Rationale: Statins can cause liver damage. Monitor liver enzymes
(AST/ALT).
4. A client on lithium therapy has a sodium level of 128 mEq/L.
What is the nurse's best action?
A. Encourage low-sodium diet
B. Administer next dose
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Increase fluid restriction
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia can increase lithium toxicity risk. Hold
the dose and notify the provider.
5. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
6. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
, C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
7. A client on sildenafil experiences chest pain during intercourse.
What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Encourage rest and fluids
C. Call emergency services
D. Administer aspirin
Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil + nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension. Do not give nitro—call 911.
8. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness. What
side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
9. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding is the
priority?
