HESI - Fundamentals practice questions
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1. When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, which ac-
tion by the nurse best ensures client safety?
A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly.: B
Rationale: Because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, bed rails should
be up on the opposite side to ensure that the client does not fall out of bed. Option
A can cause client injury to the skin or joint. Options C and D are useful techniques
while turning a client but have less priority in terms of safety than use of the bed
rails.
2. The nurse identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness
(second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention
has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
A. Administration of plasma expanders
B. Use of careful handwashing technique
C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns: B
Rationale: Careful handwashing technique is the single most effective intervention
for the prevention of contamination to all clients. Option A reverses the hypovolemia
that initially accompanies burn trauma but is not related to decreasing the prolifer-
ation of infective organisms. Options C and D are recommended by various burn
centers as possible ways to reduce the chance of infection. Option B is a proven
technique to prevent infection.
3. The nurse is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients
served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value
is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?
A. Low serum albumin level
B. Low serum transferrin level
C. High hemoglobin level
D. High cholesterol level: A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency is required to cause significantly lowered
serum albumin levels. Albumin is made by the liver only when adequate amounts
of amino acids (from protein breakdown) are available. Albumin has a long half-life,
so acute protein loss does not significantly alter serum levels. Option B is a serum
protein with a half-life of only 8 to 10 days, so it will drop with an acute protein
deficiency. Options C and D are not clinical measures of protein malnutrition.
4. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the oper-
ative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the
, HESI - Fundamentals practice questions
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surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Witness the client's signature to the permit.
B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has
questions about the surgery.
D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the
anesthesia is administered.: C
Rationale: The surgeon should be informed immediately that the permit is not
signed. It is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and
obtain the client's signature on the permit. Although the nurse can witness an
operative permit, the procedure must first be explained by the health care provider
or surgeon, including answering the client's questions. The client's questions should
be addressed before the permit is signed.
5. The nurse is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a
client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during
surgery?
A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months: B
Rationale:
Anticoagulants increase the risk for bleeding during surgery, which can pose a threat
for the development of surgical complications. The health care provider should be
informed that the client is taking these drugs. Although clients who take birth control
pills may be more susceptible to the development of thrombi, such problems usually
occur postoperatively. A client with option C or D is at less of a surgical risk than with
option B.
6. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for
the nurse to follow?
A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed
and assist the client in moving to the chair.
B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees,
stand and pivot the client into the chair.
C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward, underneath
the axillae.
D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and
gently move the client to the chair.: B
Rationale: Option B describes the correct positioning of the nurse and affords the
nurse a wide base of support while stabilizing the client's knees when assisting to a
, HESI - Fundamentals practice questions
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standing position. The chair should be placed at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with
the back of the chair toward the head of the bed. Clients should never be lifted under
the axillae; this could damage nerves and strain the nurse's back. The client should
be instructed to use the arms of the chair and should never place his or her arms
around the nurse's neck; this places undue stress on the nurse's neck and back and
increases the risk for a fall.
7. Which step(s) should the nurse take when administering ear drops to an
adult client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
B. Pull the auricle upward and outward.
C. Hold the dropper 6 cm above the ear canal.
D. Place a cotton ball into the inner canal.
E. Pull the auricle down and back.: A, B
Rationale: The correct answers (A and B) are the appropriate administration of ear
drops. The dropper should be held 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (C). A cotton
ball should be placed in the outermost canal (D). The auricle is pulled down and
back for a child younger than 3 years of age, but not an adult (E).
8. The nurse is instructing a client in the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler.
Which instruction should the nurse provide the client to ensure the optimal
benefits from the drug?
A. "Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the in-
haler."
B. "Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth."
C. "Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose."
D. "Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale.": B
Rationale: The medication should be inhaled through the mouth simultaneously with
compression of the inhaler. This will facilitate the desired destination of the aerosol
medication deep in the lungs for an optimal bronchodilation effect. Options A, C, and
D do not allow for deep lung penetration.
9. A 20-year-old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to
shower for the last 3 days. She states, "I have been told that it is harmful to
bathe during my period." Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation with the
client.: D
Rationale: Because a shower is most beneficial for the client in terms of hygiene, the
client should receive teaching first, respecting any personal beliefs such as cultural
, HESI - Fundamentals practice questions
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or spiritual values. After client teaching, the client may still choose option A or B.
Brochures reinforce the teaching.
10. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a
72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual
drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A. "How will this affect your present sexual activity?"
B. "How active is your current sex life?"
C. "How has your sex life changed as you have become older?"
D. "Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.": A
Rationale: Option A offers an open-ended question most relevant to the client's
statement. Option B does not offer the client the opportunity to express concerns.
Options C and D are even less relevant to the client's statement.
11. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic
assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus.
Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Document that the client responds to painful stimulus.
B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider: .A
Rationale: The client has demonstrated a purposeful response to pain, which should
be documented as such. Response to painful stimulus is assessed after response
to verbal stimulus, not before. There is no indication for placing the client on seizure
precautions. Reporting decorticate posturing to the health care provider is nonpur-
poseful movement.
12. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with
severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to
the nearest tenth.)
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.8 mL
C. 1.25 mL
D. 2.0 mL: B
Rationale: (1 mL × 4 mg)/5 mg = 0.8 mL
13. The nurse prepares to insert a nasogastric tube in a client with hypereme-
sis who is awake and alert. Which intervention(s) is(are) correct? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Place the client in a high Fowler position.
B. Help the client assume a left side-lying position.
C. Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the umbilicus.
D. Instruct the client to swallow after the tube has passed the pharynx.
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6llf8n
1. When turning an immobile bedridden client without assistance, which ac-
tion by the nurse best ensures client safety?
A. Securely grasp the client's arm and leg.
B. Put bed rails up on the side of bed opposite from the nurse.
C. Correctly position and use a turn sheet.
D. Lower the head of the client's bed slowly.: B
Rationale: Because the nurse can only stand on one side of the bed, bed rails should
be up on the opposite side to ensure that the client does not fall out of bed. Option
A can cause client injury to the skin or joint. Options C and D are useful techniques
while turning a client but have less priority in terms of safety than use of the bed
rails.
2. The nurse identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness
(second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention
has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
A. Administration of plasma expanders
B. Use of careful handwashing technique
C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns: B
Rationale: Careful handwashing technique is the single most effective intervention
for the prevention of contamination to all clients. Option A reverses the hypovolemia
that initially accompanies burn trauma but is not related to decreasing the prolifer-
ation of infective organisms. Options C and D are recommended by various burn
centers as possible ways to reduce the chance of infection. Option B is a proven
technique to prevent infection.
3. The nurse is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients
served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value
is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?
A. Low serum albumin level
B. Low serum transferrin level
C. High hemoglobin level
D. High cholesterol level: A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency is required to cause significantly lowered
serum albumin levels. Albumin is made by the liver only when adequate amounts
of amino acids (from protein breakdown) are available. Albumin has a long half-life,
so acute protein loss does not significantly alter serum levels. Option B is a serum
protein with a half-life of only 8 to 10 days, so it will drop with an acute protein
deficiency. Options C and D are not clinical measures of protein malnutrition.
4. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the oper-
ative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the
, HESI - Fundamentals practice questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6llf8n
surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Witness the client's signature to the permit.
B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has
questions about the surgery.
D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the
anesthesia is administered.: C
Rationale: The surgeon should be informed immediately that the permit is not
signed. It is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and
obtain the client's signature on the permit. Although the nurse can witness an
operative permit, the procedure must first be explained by the health care provider
or surgeon, including answering the client's questions. The client's questions should
be addressed before the permit is signed.
5. The nurse is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a
client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during
surgery?
A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months: B
Rationale:
Anticoagulants increase the risk for bleeding during surgery, which can pose a threat
for the development of surgical complications. The health care provider should be
informed that the client is taking these drugs. Although clients who take birth control
pills may be more susceptible to the development of thrombi, such problems usually
occur postoperatively. A client with option C or D is at less of a surgical risk than with
option B.
6. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for
the nurse to follow?
A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed
and assist the client in moving to the chair.
B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees,
stand and pivot the client into the chair.
C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward, underneath
the axillae.
D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and
gently move the client to the chair.: B
Rationale: Option B describes the correct positioning of the nurse and affords the
nurse a wide base of support while stabilizing the client's knees when assisting to a
, HESI - Fundamentals practice questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6llf8n
standing position. The chair should be placed at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with
the back of the chair toward the head of the bed. Clients should never be lifted under
the axillae; this could damage nerves and strain the nurse's back. The client should
be instructed to use the arms of the chair and should never place his or her arms
around the nurse's neck; this places undue stress on the nurse's neck and back and
increases the risk for a fall.
7. Which step(s) should the nurse take when administering ear drops to an
adult client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
B. Pull the auricle upward and outward.
C. Hold the dropper 6 cm above the ear canal.
D. Place a cotton ball into the inner canal.
E. Pull the auricle down and back.: A, B
Rationale: The correct answers (A and B) are the appropriate administration of ear
drops. The dropper should be held 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (C). A cotton
ball should be placed in the outermost canal (D). The auricle is pulled down and
back for a child younger than 3 years of age, but not an adult (E).
8. The nurse is instructing a client in the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler.
Which instruction should the nurse provide the client to ensure the optimal
benefits from the drug?
A. "Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the in-
haler."
B. "Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth."
C. "Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose."
D. "Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale.": B
Rationale: The medication should be inhaled through the mouth simultaneously with
compression of the inhaler. This will facilitate the desired destination of the aerosol
medication deep in the lungs for an optimal bronchodilation effect. Options A, C, and
D do not allow for deep lung penetration.
9. A 20-year-old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to
shower for the last 3 days. She states, "I have been told that it is harmful to
bathe during my period." Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation with the
client.: D
Rationale: Because a shower is most beneficial for the client in terms of hygiene, the
client should receive teaching first, respecting any personal beliefs such as cultural
, HESI - Fundamentals practice questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6llf8n
or spiritual values. After client teaching, the client may still choose option A or B.
Brochures reinforce the teaching.
10. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a
72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual
drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A. "How will this affect your present sexual activity?"
B. "How active is your current sex life?"
C. "How has your sex life changed as you have become older?"
D. "Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.": A
Rationale: Option A offers an open-ended question most relevant to the client's
statement. Option B does not offer the client the opportunity to express concerns.
Options C and D are even less relevant to the client's statement.
11. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic
assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus.
Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Document that the client responds to painful stimulus.
B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider: .A
Rationale: The client has demonstrated a purposeful response to pain, which should
be documented as such. Response to painful stimulus is assessed after response
to verbal stimulus, not before. There is no indication for placing the client on seizure
precautions. Reporting decorticate posturing to the health care provider is nonpur-
poseful movement.
12. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with
severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to
the nearest tenth.)
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.8 mL
C. 1.25 mL
D. 2.0 mL: B
Rationale: (1 mL × 4 mg)/5 mg = 0.8 mL
13. The nurse prepares to insert a nasogastric tube in a client with hypereme-
sis who is awake and alert. Which intervention(s) is(are) correct? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Place the client in a high Fowler position.
B. Help the client assume a left side-lying position.
C. Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the umbilicus.
D. Instruct the client to swallow after the tube has passed the pharynx.
