Air Transportation Apprentice Technical Training Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+

  Aerial Porters - Answer: ____________ ____________ are responsible for planning, scheduling, and processing eligible passengers, cargo, and mail for air movement. (2a) 2T2X1 - Answer: The Air Force Specialty Code for Air Transportation is ____________ (2a) Career Group - Answer: The "2" in the first position of the 2T2X1 AFSC represents our ____________ ____________, which is Logistics. (2a) Career Field - Answer: The "T" in the second position of the 2T2X1 AFSC represents our ____________ ____________, Transportattion. (2a) subdivision - Answer: The "2" in the third position represents our____________, Air. (2a) number - Answer: The fourth position, "X," is replaced by a _____________, which indicates the current skill level of 1, 3, 5, 7, or 9. (2a) specific AFSC - Answer: The "1" in the fifth position, represents the ____________ ____________. (2a) Career Development Courses (CDCs) - Answer: ____________ ____________ ____________ are testable self-study courses, issued in volumes used to gain knowledge-based information for this specialty. (2a) On-The-Job-Training (OJT) - Answer: ____________ consists of training in actual job situations under supervision. (2a) 3 - Answer: Successful completion of Basic Military Training and Technical Training awards the ______ Skill Level. (2a) CDCs - Answer: Air Transportation Apprentices are issued _____________ upon arrival to their first duty station. (2a) Staff Sergeant (SSgt) - Answer: Personnel must be in the grade of _________________________ or above and show satisfactory performance in all 5-skill Level positions before beginning 7-Skill Level UGT. (2a) Accident Prevention & Hazard Removal - Answer: What is the vision of the Air Force Mishap Prevention program? (2b) Compliance, Risk Reduction, & Continuous Improvement - Answer: What are three priorities the Air Force is committed to under the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS)? (2b) - Policy & Leadership - Assure - Risk Management - Promotion & Education - Answer: Name the four pillars that make up the AFSMS. (2b) 1) Identify Hazards 2) Assess Hazards 3)Develop Controls and Make Decisions 4) Implement Controls 5) Supervise and Evaluate - Answer: List (in order) the five steps in the Risk Management (RM) process. (I Am Developing In Safety) (2b) - Confined Areas - Within 10 ft. of an aircraft - Backing towards an aircraft (25 ft.) - Where Visibility is Limited - When Operator deems necessary - Answer: In what situations is a spotter required? (2b) To reduce chances and severity of accidents - Answer: What is the purpose of speed limits? (2b) AFMAN 91-203 Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire and Health Standards - Answer: Which Air Force regulation consolidated all AFOSH standards relating to general operations? (2b) Safety & Health - Answer: What is the purpose of the AFOSH program? (2b) Installation Ground Safety Office - Answer: If action is not taken to identify and correct hazards , who should be contacted? (2b) - Lifting - Use of Material Handling Equipment (MHE) - Height - Noise - Jewelry - Answer: What are the five most common hazards found in the 2T2X1 career field? (2b) Kinetic Lifting - Answer: What is the most widely accepted and taught method of lifting? (2b) Inspect object before lifting - Answer: What is the first step before properly lifting an object? (2b) Snagged Fingers - Answer: According to statistics, what is one of the most common lost-time injuries? (2b) - Steel Toe Boots - Gloves - Goggles - Face Shields - Hearing Protection - Answer: What are the common types of PPE utilized by 2T2s? (2b) peace; war - Answer: USTRANSCOM's mission is to provide full spectrum global mobility solutions and enabling capabilities for supported customer requirements in ____________ and ____________. (2c) right effect, right place, right time - Answer: Air Mobility Command's (AMC's) mission is to "provide global air mobility... ____________ ____________, ____________ ____________, ____________ ____________". (2c) traffic - Answer: AMC uses military and commercial aircraft to transport its cargo, passengers, and mail commonly referred to as "_____________." (2c) aerial port squadron - Answer: An _____________ ____________ _____________ is typically located in the Continental United States (CONUS) and consists mostly of air transportation and traffic management personnel. (2c) air mobility squadron - Answer: An ___________ ____________ ____________ is typically composed of air transportation and aircraft maintenance personnel and serves as an en-route station or in transit hub for cargo and passenger movement between specified regions. (2c) 12 hours - Answer: The mission of the Contingency Response Groups (CRG's) is to deploy its personnel within ______ ____________ to open air bases or augment existing air bases worldwide. (2c) Logistics Readiness Squadrons (LRS) - Answer: Air transportation personnel within an _____________ _____________ ________________ are typically assigned to a Deployment and Distribution Flight (2c) Air Force Reserve Command - Answer: The _________ __________ ____________ ____________ organizes aerial port squadrons at a functional level typically as small, medium, large, and super. (2c) Air Freight - Answer: __________ ____________ controls, coordinates, plans, and directs all cargo and mail activities. There are several sections, Cargo Processing , Ramp Services, and Special Handling. (2c) Air Terminal Operations Center - Answer: ________ ____________ ____________ ____________ coordinates the efforts of all sections in the loading and off-loading of traffic. (2c) Passenger Operations - Answer: ____________ ____________, commonly referred to as Passenger Service, plans and controls all passenger service activities. (2c) originates - Answer: An APOE is where traffic ____________ and enters into the DTS. (2c) APOD - Answer: An ____________ is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country where located. (2c) fixed; deployed; mobile - Answer: GATES is a real-time IGC feeder system supporting ___________, ____________, and ____________ sites. (2d) aircraft; sealift; land - Answer: ITV is used to track cargo on military/commercial __________, __________, and __________ assets. (2d) IGC - Answer: __________ is the DODs single designated source for ITV (In-Transit Visibility). (2d) CMOS - Answer: ________ is the ITV system used for wing level deployments and contingency operations. (2d) distribution forecasting; mission planning; information vizualization - Answer: ICODES provides end-to-end supply chain visibility through multiple facets, to include: __________ __________, __________ __________, and __________ ____________. (2d) plan; source; schedule personnel & aircraft - Answer: GDSS II allows the user to share information across classified/unclassified domains, with the ability to __________, __________, and ____________. (2d) AF Form 483 Certificate of Competency - Answer: In order to operate a vehicle on the airfield, all members must complete all training outlined in _____ __________ __________ ____________________ ________ _____________________. (2e) AF Form 1199; AF Form 2293; AF Form 483 - Answer: The required forms to operate a vehicle on the flight line are the ____ __________ __________, _____ ________ __________, and ____ __________ __________. (2e) AF Form 1199 - Answer: _______ ____________ ____________ grants access to the flight line. (2e) gloves, steel toe boots, hearing protection - Answer: the required minimum PPE for the flight line includes ___________, _________ ________ ____________, and ___________________ ___________________. (2e) Foreign Object Damage (FOD) - Answer: Obey all ______________ ______________ __________________ checkpoint signs posted at every entrance to ramp areas and flight line. (2e) Follow Me Truck - Answer: Never drive a vehicle between a taxiing aircraft and the ____________________ ________ ____________. (2e) flashing white - Answer: A _________________ _______________ light signal tells the driver to return to the starting point. (2e) 25; 200 - Answer: Do not park or drive less than ________ feet in front or __________ feet behind aircraft with running engines. (2e) Headquarters AMC - Answer: Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation Program (ATSEP) provides commanders and _________________________ ___________ with assessments of a unit's capability to perform core air transportation procedures. (2f) compliance; directives - Answer: ATSEP provides organizations the tools to validate ________ with established operational and training __________. (2f) Minor - Answer: ______________ findings are deficiencies that violate established guidance but has no immediate threat of personal injury, damage to equipment or property, or mission degradation. (2f) Critical - Answer: ___________________ findings are deficiencies that did result in personal injury, damage to equipment or property, or severe mission degradation. (2f) Significant - Answer: ___________________ findings are deficiencies that if not founds can cause potential personal injury, damage to equipment or property, severe mission degradation. (2f) logistics procedures - Answer: Quality Assure (QA) personnel evaluate the performance of ____________________ ____________________ performed within the organization. (2f) Obersvations - Answer: ______________________ are defined as the observed events or conditions with safety implications or technical violations not related to an evaluation or inspection. (2f) AF Form 1800 - Answer: The __________ _____________ ______________ is a checklist and outlines the key items to inspect. (2g) "x" - Answer: The owning/using organization will place an ____________ in the column adjacent to the specific area or items that need to be inspected for the vehicle. (2g) two - Answer: Vehicle operators will annotate vehicle tire pressure on page ______________ of the AF Form 1800. operator signature - Answer: Once the vehicle inspection has been fully accomplished, the vehicle operator will the ___________________ ___________________ space to certify completion. (2g) maintenance - Answer: If a discrepancy is found during the inspection, it should be documented correctly and reported to ____________________ for correction immediately. (2g) miles; hours - Answer: Enter the current _____________ and __________________ that is displayed when the discrepancy was found. (2g) Balsa-wood; or redwood - Answer: The 463L Pallet is made of a _________________-______________ or ______________________ core, sandwiched between two corrosion resistant aluminum face skins. (2h) 22; 6; 5 - Answer: The pallet rails consist of ________ steel tie-down rings, ______ rings on the long side and _______ rings on the short side. (2h) 104; 84 - Answer: The usable dimensions of a 463L pallet are ________ X ______. (2h) 290; 10,000; 250 - Answer: All empty 463L pallets weigh __________ lbs. and have maximum load capacity of ____________ lbs. or _________ lbs. psi. (2h) 5,000; 20 - Answer: The rated capacity of CGU-1B is _____________ lbs. with an overall strap length of _________ feet. (2h) 10,000 - Answer: The maximum rated capacity of the MB-1 device is _____________ lbs. (2h) MB-1; MB-2 - Answer: The main feature of the ___________ and _________ is the quicki release lever. (2h) delamination warping; gashes/missing/damaged rings - Answer: The types of damage that causes a pallet to be unserviceable are _________________________ ____________________, and _________________________________. (2h) nets; webbing - Answer: When inspecting the ____________ you need to look for frays/rips in the __________________ and missing or damaged hooks/rings. (2h) 10; 3 - Answer: When stacking pallets, group in sets of ____________. Use ________ pieces of dunnage between each set. (2h) daily use; net rack - Answer: When storing for ________________ ____________________, hang on a _____________ _________________. (2h) unit commander - Answer: All aerial port squadrons have designated representatives appointed by the _____________ __________________ as the pallet/net managers. (2h) an unauthorized person aboard an aircraft not listed on the flight manifest - Answer: What is a stowaway? (1b) AFI 34-1201 - Answer: Where can you find out who qualifies as a distinguished visitor? (1b) Blue Bark - Answer: What category of passenger is traveling in connection with the death of an immediate family member? (1b) establish whether or not the passenger is eligible for travel per DoDI 4515.13 - Answer: What is the first step in determining when a unique passenger can fly? (1b) in the best seat available - Answer: Where will passengers with disabilities be seated? (1b) prisoners & armed guards - Answer: Which type of passenger requires you to make a special announcement in the terminal to notify other passengers of the circumstance? (1b) 34 weeks - Answer: Through how many weeks may a pregnant passenger be eligible to travel? (1b) keeping passengers informed - Answer: What is one of the greatest tools a PSA has to help enhance a passenger's experience while flying with AMC? (1c) - Estimated time of Departure (ETD) - Estimated time of Arrival (ETA) - Roll Call Times - Information regarding aircraft delays - Answer: Passengers depend on PSAs to pass accurate and timely information on all matters regarding their flight. This will include information concerning what? (1c) Every two hours or when updates are received by ATOC - Answer: How often should an announcement be made for flights that are delayed more than six hours? (1c) - Dependent Lounge - Passenger Lounge - Cafeteria/USO - Specialty Category Lounge - Answer: What are some amenities terminals have for passengers? (1c) to alleviate PSAs from having to answer frequently asked questions repeatedly - Answer: What is the purpose of the AMC Form 76? (1c) HQ/AMC A4TP's air transportation passenger/fleet policy website page - Answer: Where is the template located for AMC Form 76? (1c) annually or when significant changes occur - Answer: When does the AMC Form 76 get updated? (1c) duress alarm - Answer: All major passenger terminals have a _________________ _________________ system installed linking Security Forces to the passenger terminal. (1d) Force Protection Condition (FPCON) - Answer: Security inspections will be performed in conjunction with _____________________ ______________________ ___________________ measures IAW AFI 10-245, Antiterrorism. (1d) out of - Answer: The activating device (button/switch) must be located ___________ ______ public view. (1d) quarterly - Answer: Each unit develops directives for the operation and ______________ testing of the duress alarm system. (1d) Quick Reaction Checklists (QRCs) - Answer: Air Terminals will develop locally produced _________________ ______________________ ________________________ to respond to a Suspicious Package, Robbery, Bomb Threat and Unattended Baggage. (1d) shift supervisor; installation commander - Answer: The decision to deny boarding will be made by the ______________ ____________________ but may be elevated as high as the ___________________________ _______________________ depending on the circumstance and rank of the person in question. (1d) service headquarters - Answer: Instances of unacceptable passenger conduct or behavior that warrants consideration for removal of Space-A privileges will be forwarded to HQ AMC and then to the appropriate ______________________ ____________________ for the final decision. (1d)