HESI EXIT 2024/2025 EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS,ALL
ANSWERS 100% CORRECT BEST
SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS.
A pt is receiving IV oxytocin to stimulate labor. The RN monitoring the pt notes uterine hypertonicity
& immediately:
a) Stops the infusion
b) Checks the vagina for crowning
c) Encourages the pt to take short, deep breaths
d) Increases the rate of oxytocin infusion & calls the HCP - CORRECT ANSWERS a) Stops the infusion
Rationale:
You must stop the infusion because the pt is very HR for uterine rupture when there's uterine
hypertonicity.
A pt with cervical CA is undergoing chemo with cisplatin. For which AE of cisplatin will the RN assess
the pt?
a) Nausea
b) Bloody urine
c) Hearing loss
d) ECG ∆ - CORRECT ANSWERS c) Hearing loss
Rationale:
Cisplatin is a platinum-based agent used for various types of CA. One AE of cisplatin is OTOTOXICITY
& the RN should monitor for tinnitus & hearing loss. Cyclophosphamide causes hemorrhagic cystitis,
AEB bloody urine. Doxorubicin causes CARDIOTOXICITY.
,A RN is monitoring a pregnant pt with suspected partial placenta previa who is experiencing vaginal
bleeding. Which finding would the RN expect to note on assessment of the pt?
a) Painful vaginal bleeding
b) Sustained tetanic contractions
c) C/o abdominal pain
d) Soft, relaxed, nontender uterus - CORRECT ANSWERS d) Soft, relaxed, nontender uterus
Rationale:
Partial placenta previa is incomplete coverage of the internal os by the placenta. One characteristic
of placenta previal is PAINLESS BRIGHT RED VAGINAL BLEEDING. The abdominal assessment would
reveal a soft, relaxed, nontender uterus with normal tone. Vaginal bleeding & uterine pain &
tenderness may accompany placental abruption, especially with a central abruption & blood trapped
behind the placenta. In placental abruption, the abdomen feels hard & board-like (similar to
peritonitis) on palpation as the blood penetrates the myometrium, resulting in uterine irritability. A
sustained tetanic contraction may occur if the pt is in labor & uterine muscles can't relax.
A RN assessing with a delivery is monitoring the pt for placental separation after the delivery of a
viable newborn. Which observation indicates to the RN that placental separation has occurred?
a) A discoid uterus
b) Sudden sharp vaginal pain
c) Shortening of the umbilical cord
d) A sudden gush of dark blood from the introitus - CORRECT ANSWERS d) A sudden gush of dark
blood from the introitus
Rationale:
S/S of placental separation include lengthening of the umbilical cord, a sudden gush of dark blood
from the introitus, a firmly contracted uterus & a ∆ in uterine shape from discoid to globular. The pt
may experience vaginal fullness but sudden sharp vaginal pain is not usual.
A RN is conducing a pre-op psychosocial assessment of a pt who's scheduled for a mastectomy.
Which finding would cause the RN to conclude that the pt is HR for poor sexual adjustment after the
mastectomy?
a) The pt reports h/o sexual abuse by her father
,b) The pt reports that her relationship with her spouse is stable
c) The pt reports a satisfying intimate relationship with her spouse
d) The pt reports that her & her spouse have never been able to conceive children - CORRECT
ANSWERS a) The pt reports h/o sexual abuse by her father
A RN provides instructions to a pt who is preparing for discharge after radical vulvectomy for CA.
Which statement by the pt indicates a need for further teaching?
a) "I can resume sexual activity in 4-6 wks."
b) "I need to avoid straining when I have a BM."
c) "I should wear support hose for 6 mo & elevate my legs frequently."
d) "I need to contact my surgeon immediately if I feel any numbness in my genital area." - CORRECT
ANSWERS d) "I need to contact my surgeon immediately if I feel any numbness in my genital area."
Rationale:
After radical vulvectomy, the pt is instructed to wear support hose for 6 mo & to elevate their legs
frequently. The pt should avoid straining with BM & should be told that alteration in the direction of
urine flow may occur. The pt may resume sexual activity in 4-6 wks; the RN should discuss possible
need for lubrication & position ∆ during sex. Genital numbness may be present, but it's not
necessary to notify the HCP immediately if it occurs.
An adult pt with an ileostomy is admitted to the hospital with a dx of isotonic dehydration. What
findings does the RN expect to note during the admission assessment? (SATA)
a) Skin tenting
b) Flat neck veins
c) Weak peripheral pulses
d) Moist PO mucous membranes
e) HR 88 bpm
f) RR 18 breaths/min - CORRECT ANSWERS a) Skin tenting
b) Flat neck veins
c) Weak peripheral pulses
, A pt dx'd with advanced CKD & oliguria has been taught about Na+ & K+ restriction between dialysis
tx's. The RN determines that the pt understands this restriction if the pt states that it's acceptable to
use:
a) Na+ substitutes
b) Herbs & spices
c) Na+ with cooking only
d) Processed foods are desired - CORRECT ANSWERS b) Herbs & spices
A RN provides dietary instructions to a hospitalized pt with COPD. Which menu selection by the pt
tells the RN that the pt understands the instructions?
a) Coffee
b) Broccoli
c) Cheeseburger
d) Chocolate milk - CORRECT ANSWERS c) Cheeseburger
Rationale:
COPD pt's are encouraged to eat high-calorie, high protein diets & choose foods that are easy to
chew & don't promote gas formation. Dry foods stimulate coughing & foods like milk & chocolate
may increase the thickness of the saliva & other secretions. The RN advises the pt to avoid these
foods, as well as caffeine, which promotes diuresis, contributing to dehydration, and may increase
nervousness.
What PO2 value indicates respiratory failure in adults? - CORRECT ANSWERS PO2 < 60 mmHg
What blood value indicates hypercapnia? - CORRECT ANSWERS PCO2 > 45 mmHg
What condition occurs when the PO2 is < 60 mmHg (acute hypoxemia), the CO2 tension rises > 50
mmHg (acute hypercarbia, hypercapnia) & the pH drops < 7.35, or both? - CORRECT ANSWERS
Acute respiratory failure
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS,ALL
ANSWERS 100% CORRECT BEST
SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS.
A pt is receiving IV oxytocin to stimulate labor. The RN monitoring the pt notes uterine hypertonicity
& immediately:
a) Stops the infusion
b) Checks the vagina for crowning
c) Encourages the pt to take short, deep breaths
d) Increases the rate of oxytocin infusion & calls the HCP - CORRECT ANSWERS a) Stops the infusion
Rationale:
You must stop the infusion because the pt is very HR for uterine rupture when there's uterine
hypertonicity.
A pt with cervical CA is undergoing chemo with cisplatin. For which AE of cisplatin will the RN assess
the pt?
a) Nausea
b) Bloody urine
c) Hearing loss
d) ECG ∆ - CORRECT ANSWERS c) Hearing loss
Rationale:
Cisplatin is a platinum-based agent used for various types of CA. One AE of cisplatin is OTOTOXICITY
& the RN should monitor for tinnitus & hearing loss. Cyclophosphamide causes hemorrhagic cystitis,
AEB bloody urine. Doxorubicin causes CARDIOTOXICITY.
,A RN is monitoring a pregnant pt with suspected partial placenta previa who is experiencing vaginal
bleeding. Which finding would the RN expect to note on assessment of the pt?
a) Painful vaginal bleeding
b) Sustained tetanic contractions
c) C/o abdominal pain
d) Soft, relaxed, nontender uterus - CORRECT ANSWERS d) Soft, relaxed, nontender uterus
Rationale:
Partial placenta previa is incomplete coverage of the internal os by the placenta. One characteristic
of placenta previal is PAINLESS BRIGHT RED VAGINAL BLEEDING. The abdominal assessment would
reveal a soft, relaxed, nontender uterus with normal tone. Vaginal bleeding & uterine pain &
tenderness may accompany placental abruption, especially with a central abruption & blood trapped
behind the placenta. In placental abruption, the abdomen feels hard & board-like (similar to
peritonitis) on palpation as the blood penetrates the myometrium, resulting in uterine irritability. A
sustained tetanic contraction may occur if the pt is in labor & uterine muscles can't relax.
A RN assessing with a delivery is monitoring the pt for placental separation after the delivery of a
viable newborn. Which observation indicates to the RN that placental separation has occurred?
a) A discoid uterus
b) Sudden sharp vaginal pain
c) Shortening of the umbilical cord
d) A sudden gush of dark blood from the introitus - CORRECT ANSWERS d) A sudden gush of dark
blood from the introitus
Rationale:
S/S of placental separation include lengthening of the umbilical cord, a sudden gush of dark blood
from the introitus, a firmly contracted uterus & a ∆ in uterine shape from discoid to globular. The pt
may experience vaginal fullness but sudden sharp vaginal pain is not usual.
A RN is conducing a pre-op psychosocial assessment of a pt who's scheduled for a mastectomy.
Which finding would cause the RN to conclude that the pt is HR for poor sexual adjustment after the
mastectomy?
a) The pt reports h/o sexual abuse by her father
,b) The pt reports that her relationship with her spouse is stable
c) The pt reports a satisfying intimate relationship with her spouse
d) The pt reports that her & her spouse have never been able to conceive children - CORRECT
ANSWERS a) The pt reports h/o sexual abuse by her father
A RN provides instructions to a pt who is preparing for discharge after radical vulvectomy for CA.
Which statement by the pt indicates a need for further teaching?
a) "I can resume sexual activity in 4-6 wks."
b) "I need to avoid straining when I have a BM."
c) "I should wear support hose for 6 mo & elevate my legs frequently."
d) "I need to contact my surgeon immediately if I feel any numbness in my genital area." - CORRECT
ANSWERS d) "I need to contact my surgeon immediately if I feel any numbness in my genital area."
Rationale:
After radical vulvectomy, the pt is instructed to wear support hose for 6 mo & to elevate their legs
frequently. The pt should avoid straining with BM & should be told that alteration in the direction of
urine flow may occur. The pt may resume sexual activity in 4-6 wks; the RN should discuss possible
need for lubrication & position ∆ during sex. Genital numbness may be present, but it's not
necessary to notify the HCP immediately if it occurs.
An adult pt with an ileostomy is admitted to the hospital with a dx of isotonic dehydration. What
findings does the RN expect to note during the admission assessment? (SATA)
a) Skin tenting
b) Flat neck veins
c) Weak peripheral pulses
d) Moist PO mucous membranes
e) HR 88 bpm
f) RR 18 breaths/min - CORRECT ANSWERS a) Skin tenting
b) Flat neck veins
c) Weak peripheral pulses
, A pt dx'd with advanced CKD & oliguria has been taught about Na+ & K+ restriction between dialysis
tx's. The RN determines that the pt understands this restriction if the pt states that it's acceptable to
use:
a) Na+ substitutes
b) Herbs & spices
c) Na+ with cooking only
d) Processed foods are desired - CORRECT ANSWERS b) Herbs & spices
A RN provides dietary instructions to a hospitalized pt with COPD. Which menu selection by the pt
tells the RN that the pt understands the instructions?
a) Coffee
b) Broccoli
c) Cheeseburger
d) Chocolate milk - CORRECT ANSWERS c) Cheeseburger
Rationale:
COPD pt's are encouraged to eat high-calorie, high protein diets & choose foods that are easy to
chew & don't promote gas formation. Dry foods stimulate coughing & foods like milk & chocolate
may increase the thickness of the saliva & other secretions. The RN advises the pt to avoid these
foods, as well as caffeine, which promotes diuresis, contributing to dehydration, and may increase
nervousness.
What PO2 value indicates respiratory failure in adults? - CORRECT ANSWERS PO2 < 60 mmHg
What blood value indicates hypercapnia? - CORRECT ANSWERS PCO2 > 45 mmHg
What condition occurs when the PO2 is < 60 mmHg (acute hypoxemia), the CO2 tension rises > 50
mmHg (acute hypercarbia, hypercapnia) & the pH drops < 7.35, or both? - CORRECT ANSWERS
Acute respiratory failure
