(Answered 100 out of 100) COMMUNICABLE DISEASE FINAL EXAM FALL 2024/2025.

COMMUNICABLE DISEASE FINAL COACHING 1. Which among the following statement is true to communicable disease? (select all that apply) * A. An infectious disease can be contagious because the latter can be transmitted indirectly. B. Communicable diseases could either be contagious or infectious. C. An infectious disease is transmitted through indirect physical contact. D. Contagious diseases are sometimes called as infectious diseases. 2. In order for an agent to cause infection, it must be: (select all that apply) * A. present all that time B. capable of infecting the host C. a virus D. a bacteria 3. Which among the following is NOT true to the epidemiologic triangle model? * A. As long as the balance is maintained or is tilted in favor of the host, disease does not occur. B. Environmental elements can tilt the balance in favor of the agent. C. The model suggests that the agent and the susceptible host interact freely in a common environment. D. If the balance is tilted in favor of the agent, disease does not occur. 4. This refers to the manner in which a pathogen enters a susceptible host: * A. Causative agent B. Reservoir C. Portal of exit D. Portal of entry 5. Which among the following is a direct transmission of agents? * A. Droplet spread B. Airborne transmission C. Vehicleborne transmission D. Vectorborne 6. Which among the following statements made by the student denotes understood the concept of indirect transmission? * A. “I will not eat street foods.” B. “I should be wearing gloves when taking care of a patient with gonorrhea.” C. “Unprotected sexual intercourse may result to sexual transmitted disease.” D. “I will advise mothers not to let their children walk barefooted. 7 To prevent transmission of diseases, the best way is to: *A. Remove any elements to prevent the onset of a communicable disease B. Enhance the immune system of the susceptible host C. Immunize all people D. Eradicate the causative agent 8. The student nurse knows that a host is susceptible to diseases because of: (select all that apply) * A. Malnutrition B. Old age C. Not alcoholic D. Present existing disease (co-morbidity) 9. Select all early signs of leprosy: * A. Reddish or white change in skin color B. gynecomastia C. Loss of sweating D. Madarosis `10. The specific vector of malaria: * A. Female anopheles mosquito B. Oncomelaniaquadrasi C. Aedes aegypti D. Plasmodium falciparum 11. This oral malarial treatment is given to resistant case of P. falciparum: * A. Sulfadoxine 50 mg B. Primaquine C. Chloroquine phosphate 250mg D. Quinine hydrochloride 300mg/mL, 2 mL 12. The best way to control Schistosomiasis is: * A. Protect self from insect bites. B. Do not swim in rivers and other bodies of water. C. Do not walk barefooted. D. Snails must be killed. 13. Which among the following can be a host of Mycobacterium? * A. Humans B. Dogs C. Cattles D. MonkeysSITUATION: Lito, 35 years old is HIV positive. Aside from fatigue, Lito has no other complaints. 1. The result of the Enzyme-linked Immunosolvent Assay Test (ELISA) was positive. The nurse understands that this is a test to determine the presence of: a. HIV antibody b. Actively replicating HIV c. HIV antigen-antibody response d. Increased CD4 cell count 2. Which of the following is NOT a primary tool for AIDS prevention? a. Education b. Counseling c. Immunization d. Behavior modification 3. Which of the following is an inappropriate advice of the nurse for Lito? a. Do not engage in unprotective sexual activity b. Inform all health care personnel c. Inform all sexual partners of his health status d. Do not become pregnant 4. From the list of nursing diagnosis prepared by the nurse for Lito, which of the following is a PRIORITY nursing diagnosis? a. Risk for impaired skin integrity b. Wear gloves c. Ineffective coping d. Ineffective sexuality pattern 5. When the nurse interacts with the client, which of the following precautionary measures should she observe to prevent contamination? a. Avoid touching body fluids b. Wear gloves c. Maintain 3 feet distant from the patient d. Wear mask and gown SITUATION – Manuel, 4 years old is positive for Bacterial Mengitis. 6. From the history obtained from the mother, which of the following could be possible method by which the infection was transmitted to the patient? a. Drinking water in the community was contaminated b. Contact with respiratory secretions of an infected person c. Hand of caregiver was contaminated with fecal dischanges d. Eating utensils of the child were contaminated 7. The physician prescribed lumbar tap. When the nurse reads the laboratory results, which of the following reflects positive results indicative of Bacterial meningitis? a. Decreased white blood cells, decreased proteins, high glucose b. Normal white blood cells count, increased proteins, high glucose c. Increased white blood cells, increased proteins, low glucose d. Increased white blood cells, decreased proteins, low glucose 8. Assessment findings reveal positive Brudzinski’s sign. When the nurse flexed the child’s neck forward, which of the following behavior indicated a positive Brudzinki’s sign? a. Hip flexed and knee extended b. Knee extended and ankle flexed c. Leg extended with resistance d. Hip, knee and ankle flexed 9. The nurse is aware that in pulmonary tuberculosis, there is decreased surface area for a gaseous exchange in the lungs. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs by the process of: a. Diffusion b. Filtrationc. Active transport d. Osmosis 10. The client begins to expectorate blood. The nurse understands this as: a. Hematuria b. Hematemesis c. Hemoptysis d. Hematoma 11. The client asks the nurse how we got infected with pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse explains that the mode of transmission is one of the following: a. Exposure to tuberculosis cattle by ingestion of unpasteurized milk b. Airborne droplet method through coughing, singing or sneezing c. Contaminated food and water d. Prolong skin to skin contact 12. The physician prescribed an anti-tuberculosis drug to the client. The nurse is aware that abusive of drugs listed can cause damage to the eight cranial nerve. The drug is: a. Aminosalicylic acid (ASA) b. Streptomycin sulfate c. Isoniazid d. Ethambutol hydrochloride SITUATION: Celina, 52 years old has Hepatitis A. 13. The following may be used in attempting to control hepatitis A, which measure most controversial? a. Using a gown when bathing her b. Observe bedpan precautions c. Wearing a mask when caring for her d. Observe needle precautions 14. Of the following, the most essential elements to be considered in the treatment: a. Bed rest and diet therapy b. Diversional therapy and drug therapy c. Drug therapy and diet therapy d. Bed rest and diversional therapy 15. The incubation period of the disease is: a. 15-45 days b. 5-10 days c. 45-50 days d. 10-45 days 16. The rationale that you can explain to her why pruritus is present: a. Decreased prothrombin synthesis b. Impaired secretions of the conjugated bilirubin c. Stretching of the Glisson’s capsule due to inflammation d. Bile salt accumulation in the skin 17. Occurrence of her fever could be rationalized by the a. Release of pyrogena in inflammatory process b. Stretching of Glisson’s capsule due to inflammation c. Insufficient absorption of fat soluble vitamin K d. Impaired secretion of the conjugated bilirubin 18. Care of the skin will allay itching which is annoying. Which of the interventions below is NOT advised for patient with measles? a. Sponge bath b. Calamine lotion c. Cold bath d. Warm bath 19. During the convalescent stage of measles the desquamating skin is unsightly. What would you do to overcome this situation? a. Cover the skin b. Rub with olive oil c. Scrape the skin d. Rub with baby oil SITUATION: Lea is 9 years old, grade 3 but missed school due to typhoid fever. 20. Which of the following is the source of infection on typhoid fever? a. Feces and urine of infected persons b. Droplet spreadc. Leftover food d. Ingested food 21. What is the etiologic agent in typhoid fever a. Salmonella typhi b. Borrelia fearrentis c. Bilharzian d. Framberatrops 22. The health teaching if the nurse to the family of Lea with typhoid fever should include this topic: a. Quarantine procedure b. Terminal disinfection c. Immnunation d. Proper handwashing 23. Which of the following is the specific treatment prescribed? a. Dicloxacilin b. Colistin c. Chloraphenicol d. Fluvoxamine SITUATION: Nurse care of any CD problem primarily focuses on giving comfort to the patient from undue infection is more than a treatment. 24. Nursing care of patients with diptheria is provision of absolute rest. Which nursing interventions must be done to a child with laryngeal diphtheria? a. Small and frequent feeding b. Crakers at noon time c. Cookies for snack d. Ice chips every hour 25. Nursing care of patients with Hepatitis is avoidance of undue exertion. Which one below would you advise your patient to do? a. Parlor games b. Stationary bike c. Card games d. Jog a little bit 26. Nursing care of patients with influenza calls for prevention of complication. Chills should be avoided. You must instruct your patient to do which of the following? a. Change clothes when perspiring b. Quick bath c. Enemas of glycerin d. Keep warm and quiet SITUATION: Bert is new graduate of a college degree. He is known to be a playboy in school with many girlfriends. Now he is on home care after a weeks of hospitalization from Hepatitis B. 27. What is the mode of transmission of the hepatitis virus which affected Bert? a. Water contamination b. Droplet c. Spoiled food d. Body secretions 28. Bert is on rehabilitation care. What would you tell him during the home visit? a. “Have a good rest to be strong again” b. “Don’t be foolish with girls again” c. “Why don’t you exercise every day?” d. “I believe you have been a gigolo.” 29. To let Bert’s family participate in his home care, your health teaching would include explanation of the disease process and let them: a. Avoid using personal things of Bert b. Separate his food at meal time c. Limit visit of his friends d. Burn his linen after use 30. As a nurse, when you have to do nursing procedure for Bert the primary preventive measure at home is? a. Vaccination b. Universal precaution c. Handwashing d. Washing Bert’s things 31. The nurse explaining universal precaution to the client. The primary purpose of universal precaution as part of maintaining safe environment is to:a. Prevent health workers from acquiring communicable diseases. b. Reduce the spread of the disease c. Prevent nosocomial infection d. Prevent the spread of communicable diseases 32. You apt that all Fridays are Family Care Nursing clinic HOLIDAYS. On Fridays you prefer to use “personal visits”. You follow-up patients in their homes, do volunteer health work in schools or visit industries within vicinity. In a student health clinic a client confides to you that her boyfriend informed her that he tested positive for Hepatitis B. Which of the following is you BEST response? a. “You will receive the hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)” b. “Have you had sex with your boyfriend?| c. “That must be real shocking to you.” d. “You should also be tested for hepatitis B.” 33. When assessing a child diagnosed with diarrhea due to salmonella, for which of the possible resources should the nurse be alert during history taking? a. Cat litter box b. Bird droppings c. Non-refrigerated custard d. Under cooked eggs 34. Vongebnam Sales, a farmer complained of nausea and vomiting, along with cramping of the legs was rushed to the ER. Other notable manifestations are ascites, marked jaundice as well as a low BMI. He said that he has been like this for more or less that a month now. Initial tests were done, the patient has elevated liver enzymes, kidney tests are normal. What could be inferred from these data? a. The patient has typhoid b. The patient may have leptospirosis c. The patient may have schistosomiasis d. The patient could have dengue 35. A student nurse told his preceptor that Clopidogrel is a thrombolytic which is totally contraindicated in patients the dengue fever, the nurse statement is: a. False, because it is an antiplatelet. b. True, because thrombolytics are not contraindicated like anticoagulants c. True, clopidogrel like all other thrombolytics can further aggragate bleeding d. True, because plavix is only used after a recent attack and is not used to patients with dengue 36. Student said that having 22 petechiae in 1x1 sq. inch area cannot be used as a confirmation for dengue. The student statement is: a. False, because CBC (low platelet and high Hct) is the confirmation of having dengue. b. True because virus isolation, MAC-ELISA, and Piatelia NS1 tests are used to confirm dengue. c. False, because more than 22 petechiae in 1x1 sq. inch is the confirmation of having dengue. d. True, because more than 30 petechiae are needed to confirm dengue. 37. Based in the answer the number above, Vongebnam Sales will be given: a. Blood transfusion b. Antibiotic doxycycline c. Antihelminthic praziquentel d. Antihelmintic Chloramphenicol 38. Which of the following laboratory test would classify the presence of fever as positive for malaria? a. CBC b. Malaria c. Bloor Smear d. Occult Blood 39. Upon Assessment, nurse notes that the child has fever. In the presence of mosquito bites she would suspect the following illnesses, EXCEPT: a. DHF b. Malaria c. Measles d. Hemorrhagic Fever SITUATION: Your patient Darrel, a former-prostitute has been experiencing on and off fever for the past days, he also admitted use of drugs. HIV was the diagnosis. 40. Darrel develop a condition called Crix belly. This condition is also known as: a. Buffalo hump b. Ascites c. Lypodystrophy d. Hepatomegally 41. In order to detectDarrel’s progression on his illness, he is to undergo a test called:a. PCR b. Western blot c. ELISA d. CD4 cell count 42. He was given initial therapy for his condition. Which of these drugs can be considered as Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor? a. Indinavir b. Abacavir c. Saquinavir d. Ritonavir 43. The drug the causes the condition above is: a. Retrovir b. Indinavir c. Saquinavir d. Ritonavir 44. Relative to the question above, the action of NRTIs is: a. It slow the viral replication b. It prevents the RNA conversion into DNA c. It blocks the virus enzyme which prevents the infected CD4 T-cell in producing new HIV particles d. It slows viral replication by inserting faulty blocks and blocking enzymes in RNA to DNA conversion making the DNA faulty and dysfunctional and unable to replicate. SITUATION: A new hired nurse has been assigned to care for clients with communicable diseases, his patient Edwin; a tricycle has been experiencing dizziness and tinnitus from his medication. 45. Rabies has two stages in human and three stages in animals, this statement is considered: a. Correct. b. Incorrect, because it should be the other way around. c. Incorrect, because there are both three stages in animals and humans d. Incorrect, because there are five stages in humans and three in animals. 46. Aside from tinnitus, Edwin hearing has been muffled and clogged, which drugs could be the culprit behind the said symptoms? a. Zocor b. Streptomycin c. Metronidazole d. Chloramphenicol 47. Edwin’s test are in stating that his TB bacilli are resistant to Rifampacin and Isoniazid. This means: a. He has MDRTB b. He has partial drug resistance to PTB c. He has sub-total drug resistance to PTB d. He needs to increase Rifampicin and Isoniazid dose to overcome resistance 48. From MDRTB, the major drugs are the following: a. Amikacin, capreomycin, kanamycin b. Adriamycin, vinblatine, dacarbazine c. Carbamazepine, neomycin, gentamycin d. Gloxacillin, methycellulose, kanamycin 49. Aside from streptomycin, he is also taking Ethambutol. Using this information, it can be safely inferred that Edwin was: a. Category 2 TB b. Category 1 TB c. Category 3 TB d. Chronic TB 50. The inactivated polio vaccine for polio is also known as: a. Luna vaccine b. Lunan vaccine c. Salk vaccine d. Sabin vaccine 51. Don as bitten ion four rapid dogs while reading some books about nursing. He is to receive Human Rabies Immunoglobulin (HRIG). He weighs 67 kgs. The dose should be: a. 2,480 IU b. 1,240 IU c. 1,340 IU d. 2,680 IU 52. Don should also get a passive vaccine like:a. Verorab b. DPT c. Lyssavac d. ATS 53. Which of the following statement is not applicable? a. Rabies can be treated via prompt vaccination and pre-exposure prophylaxis b. Rabies is incurable but preventable c. Rabies is exclusive to dogs and cats d. Rabies is highly contagious. 54. Anti-rabies law of 2007 is: a. RA 9482 b. RA 9428 c. RA 9842 d. RA 9284 55. Research has shown that the most effective infection control procedure is: a. Handwashing before and after the client contact b. Wearing of gloves and masks for direct client care c. Broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics. d. Isolation precaution 56. The client was visited by friends. What instruction should you give visitors who will come in contact with the client? a. Wear gloves when entering the room b. Talk with the relatives outside the client’s room c. Perform hand hygiene after coming in contact with the client d. Leave the facility immediately to avoid long exposure with the client. 57. Your best nursing intervention for the behavior manifested by this client is to: a. Explain the isolation procedure and provide meaningful stimulation b. Limit the visitors to reduce the risk of spreading the infection c. Comfort the client to keep him from becoming angry d. Provide a quiet and non-stimulating environment. 58. The psychological implication of isolation to the client includes which of the following: a. Sense of loneliness due to disruption of normal social relationship b. Accepts the isolation technique for the protection of the family c. Depresses and rejected d. Altered body image 59. A client who is immunosuppressed is being admitted to the hospital and will be placed on neutropenic precautions. The nurse plans to ensure that which of the following does not occur in the care of the client? a. Placing a mask on the client if client leaves the room b. Removing a vase with fresh flowers left by the previous client c. Admitting the client to a semi private room d. Placing a precaution sign on the door to the room 60. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is scheduled to go to the radiology department for a chest x-ray evaluation. Which nursing intervention would be appropriate when preparing to transport the client? a. Apply a mask to the client b. Apply a mask and gown to the client c. Apply a mask, gown, and gloves to the client d. Notify the x-ray department that the personnel can be sure to wear a mask when the client arrives 61. A registered nurse (RN) is orienting a nursing assistant to the clinical nursing unit. The RN would intervene if the nursing assistant did which of the following during a routine hand washing procedure? a. Kept hands lower than elbows b. Used 3 to 5 mL of soap from dispenser c. Washed continuously for 10-15 seconds d. Dried from forearm down to fingers 62. Penicillin is classified as an antibiotic with bactericidal action. The tern bactericidal indicates that this antibiotic will: a. Inhibit the growth of a specific bacterium b. Destroy growth bacterium c. Decrease the number of bacteria d. Increase the number of bacteria 63. In preventing the spread of infection, which of the following protective equipment is removed after gloves? a. Mask b. Clean gownc. Goggles d. Face Shield 64. Which of the following practices will NOT help prevent the spread of infection? a. Hand washing in between client contact b. Discarding used needles uncapped in an impenetrable container c. Use of gloves when administering IM injections d. Covering the bedpan before discarding feces out of the client’s room 65. Which of the following is considered as the first tier of isolation precautions? a. Standard precaution b. Contact precaution c. Airborne precaution d. Droplet precaution 66. The reservoir of the tetanus bacillus is/are: a. Man b. Contaminated soils c. Intestinal canals of animals d. All of these 67. The following are nursing actions for the client with PTB except: a. Instruct the client about proper disposal of nasopharyngeal secretions b. When there is hemoptysis, chest physiotherapy must done c. Rest may be encourage d. None of the above 68. Negri inclusion bodies are diagnosis of: a. Poliomyelitis b. Rabies c. Herpes simplex d. Monomucleosis SITUATION: Padilla, age nine was bitten by a dog his way home from school. When his father learner about this, he wanted the dog killed at once. 69. When Padilla was bought to the health center, you interviewed Padilla and his father to take the history. Before seeing the doctor, you told Padilla’s father not to kill the dog because the dog: a. Must be confined in a cage b. Needs to be given a vaccine c. Has to be observed for ten days d. Should be experimented for Negri bodies 70. Rabies can be transmitted to another person through: I. Bite of rabid animal II. Corneal transplant III. Airborne spread a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. I only 71. The pathognomonic symptom of measles: a. Rose spot b. Slimson’s sign c. Koplik spot d. Maculopapular rash 72. A typical complaint of a child with uncomplicated measles: a. Photophobia b. Myalgia c. Conjuctival infection d. Rhinitis 73. Small, red lesions found in the soft palate: a. Forschimer’s spots b. Koplik’s spots c. Rose spots d. None of the above 74. The following are the signs and symptoms of congenital rubella: 1. Microcephaly 2. PDA 3. Cataract4. Constracture 5. Jaundice a. 1,2,3 b. 1,3 c. 2,4 d. 1,2,3,4,5 75. First signs of mumps: a. Tenderness of a long period b. Pain and swelling in the parotid region c. Dysphagia and odynophagia d. Pain in the testicles 76. Incubation period of chicken pox: a. 14-21 days b. 7-14 days c. 10-21 days d. 5-21 days 77. Diptheria is characterized by: a. Acute nasopharyngitis b. Persistent cough for 2 weeks c. Acute pharyngitis & laryngitis with a pseudomembrane d. Catarrhal symptoms with paroxysmal cough 78. Ms. Nelvina is a 24-year-old prostitute infected with human immunodeficiency virus is now presenting with symptoms of acquired immunodeficiency symdrome. Ms. Nelvina is prescribed didanosine (Videx). The nurse instructs her to: a. Take the medication with an antacid to prevent GI upset b. Dissolve the powder in orange juice to replace potassium c. Take the medication on an empty stomach with water d. Avoid lying down for half an hour after taking the medication 79. Which of the following should be avoided when taking metronidazole? a. Alcohol b. Processed food c. Liver d. Milk 80. Which of the following is an incorrect practice when preparing metronidazole? a. Add the contents of the vial in D5W, LR or NSS solution b. It should be neutralized before administration by adding 5 mEq of sodium bicarbonate c. Do not use aluminum needles and hubs to reconstitute the drug d. Refrigerate neutralized reconstituted solution before administration 81. Metronidazole is a/an: a. Psychotropic drug b. Anti-cancer drug c. Anti-protozoal drug d. Anti-viral drug SITUATION: Domingo, 29 years old seek consultation with a complaint of low-grade afternoon fever, loss of appetite, weight loss, fatigue, muscle pain and productive cough with a mucopurulent discharge. Diagnosis Rule out PTB. 82. You discuss with Domingo, the major adverse reactions of isoniazid to enable him to report immediately. These are: a. Acute gout and jaundice b. Achiness and epigastric pain c. Anorexia, vomiting and abdominal pain d. Jaundice, peripheral neuritis, psychosis 83. A client diagnose with tuberculosis is taking the proper chemotherapy of INH, rifampicin, and PZA. The nurse should evaluate the client for which of the following common toxicities? a. Optic neuritis b. Ototoxicity c. Hepatotoxicity d. Nephrotoxicity 84. Which of the following technique is correct in administering Mantoux test? a. Aspiration before injecting the medication b. Pinch the skin when inserting the needle c. Massage the site after injecting the medication d. Hold the needle almost parallel to the patient’s skin85. The public health nurse is providing follow-up care to a client with tuberculosis who does not regular take his medication, which of the following nursing action is appropriate? a. Remind the patient that tuberculosis is fatal if not treated promptly b. Visit the patient weekly to ask him if he is taking the medication weekly c. Ask the patients spouse to supervise the daily administration of the medication d. Notify the client of the patients noncompliance and request a different prescription 86. A nurse working in a private clinic asks to see the result of the mantoux test administered 72 hours previously in a patient the measurement was 11 mm induration. Which is the next nursing action the nurse is expect to do? a. Document that it’s a normal finding in the patient’s record b. Tell the patient to seek the advice of a pulmonologist c. The result is equivocal and needs to be repeated d. Notify the doctor 87. The following are generalized systematic sign and symptoms of PTB patient: I. Low grade afternoon fever II. Night sweats III. General influenza like symptoms IV. Productive cough with mucopurulent sputum a. All except III b. All except IV c. All except V d. All of the above 88. Under category 2 in PTB treatment, the instruction would be: a. RIP 2 months, RI 2 months b. RIPE 2 months, RI 4 months c. RIPES 2 months, REP 1 month, RIE 4 months d. RIPES 1st 2 months, REPS another 1 month, RIE 5 months 89. Which if the following is not nursing management intended to clients with hepatitis? a. Relieve pruritus b. Health teaching c. Isolation precaution d. Administer medication as ordered (Horticosteroids, Liver protector – Essential) 90. Characteristics of German measles rash includes all of the following except: a. Pink-red maculopapular rash b. Rashes are slightly bigger than measles c. Rashes appears on face going to the trunk to the extremities d. Rash disappearance is characterized by fine flaking 91. Avoidance of German measles is a must for pregnant mothers specially for the first trimester because of its possible effect to the baby. This is observed because: a. The virus produces inflammatory response that is into conductive for the zygote b. The virus can readily pass through the placenta and produce its effects to the fetus c. It causes abortion d. It dilates the cervix that causes propulsion of the fetus 92. Penicillin is administered to patients with chickenpox is given because: a. Penicillin inhibits the growth of microorganisms of chickenpox b. Penicillin alleviates signs and symptoms of chickenpox c. Penicillin prevents other infection accompanies possible by chickenpox d. Penicillin prevents prolonged exposure to virus 93. Aspirin is not given for patient with chickenpox to prevent: a. Creutfield-Jakob Syndrome b. Reye’s Syndrome c. Herpes Zoster d. Postherpetic neuralgia 94. The disease that is the most common in the Philippines is: a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Chlamydia d. Trichomoniasis 95. The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is: a. Sharing needles for injecting drug use b. Sexual contact c. Vertical transmissiond. Blood transmission 96. The pathognomonic sign of gonorrhea is” a. Nocturnal ani b. Gleets c. Dyspareunia d. Chancre 97. Another term to connote gonorrhea is except: a. Strain b. Morning drop c. GC d. Bad blood 98. The following are the consideration in taking good care of clients with HIV except: a. Glove should be worn when handling blood specimen, soiled linen or body fluids b. Thermometer is washed with soapy water and soaks it with 40% alcohol for 10 minutes c. Avoid contact to open wound or lesions d. Universal precaution and body substance isolation is a must 99. Patients with AIDS are said to immunosuppressed. Which of the following interventions is the nurse would likely best perform to prevent further infection: a. Administration of antibiotics as ordered b. Hand washing c. Monitor for oral infection and meningitis d. Always check laboratory records of WBC an CD4 cells 100.Which of the following is TRUE about Ebola Virus EXCEPT: a. Ebola virus disease (formerly known as Ebola haemorrhagic fever) is a severe, often fatal illness, with a death rate of up to 90% caused by Ebola virus, a member of the filovirus family that became epidemic in West Africa b. People become infected with Ebola either through contact with infected animals infected fruit bats or primates (apes and monkeys) or through contact with the bodily fluids of infected humans. Most cases are caused by human to human transmission which occurs when blood or other bodily fluids or secretions (stool, urine, saliva, semen) of infected people enters a healthy person’s body through broken skin or mucous membranes. c. Ebola symptoms vary but sudden onset of fever, intense weakness, muscle pain, headache and sore throat are commonly experienced at the beginning of the disease (‘the dry phase’). As the disease progresses, people commonly develop vomiting and diarrhea (‘the wet phase’), rash, impaired kidney and liver function, and in some cases, both internal and external bleeding d. The incubation period is 2-14 days