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Examen

Advanced Pharm Final Exam With 100% Correct Q&A Top Verified Solution With Rationale (A+ SCORED)

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Which patient diagnosed with a urinary tract infection will be hospitalization and prescribed intravenous antibiotics? A. A 5-year-old child with a fever of 100.5°F, dysuria, and bacteriuria B. A pregnant woman with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, and fever C. A young man with dysuria, flank pain, and a previous urinary tract infection D. An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter - ANSWER - The patient with an indwelling catheter and signs of pyelonephritis shows signs of a complicated UTI, which is best treated with intravenous antibiotics. Three other patients show signs of uncomplicated urinary tract infections that are not severe and can be treated with oral antibiotics. Before prescribing methenamine, it is important for the provider to review the patient's history for evidence of which problem? A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine B. History of reactions to antibiotic agents C. Possibility of pregnancy D. Previous resistance to antiseptic agents - ANSWER - Methenamine should not be given to patients with renal impairment, because crystalluria can occur. There is no cross-reactivity between methenamine and antibiotic agents. Methenamine is safe for use during pregnancy. There is no organism drug resistance to methenamine. A patient who is taking nitrofurantoin reports experiencing several side effects. Which side effect would cause the provider the most concern and would require discontinuation of the medication? A. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting B. Brown-colored urine C. Drowsiness D. Tingling of the fingers - ANSWER - Tingling of the fingers can indicate peripheral neuropathy, which can be an irreversible side effect of nitrofurantoin. The other side effects are not serious and can be reversed. A patient who is taking doxycycline for a serious infection reports perianal itching. What intervention is most likely to be useful? A. Prescribing an antihistamine to the patient's existing drug regimen B. Ordering liver function tests to test for hepatotoxicity C. Prescribing an antifungal drug to treat a superinfection D. Testing the patient for a C. difficile secondary infection - ANSWER - A superinfection occurs secondary to suppression of drug-sensitive organisms. Overgrowth with fungi, especially Candida albicans, is common and may occur in the mouth, pharynx, vagina, or bowel. Anal itching is a sign of such an infection, not a sign of hepatotoxicity. Antihistamines will not treat the cause. C. difficile infection is characterized by profuse, watery diarrhea. A patient is beginning treatment for active tuberculosis (TB) in a region with little drug-resistant TB. Which treatment regimen will the provider prescribe initially? A. Isoniazid and pyrazinamide B. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol C. Rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol D. Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol - ANSWER - The induction phase of treatment for patients in a region without drug resistance is the same as for patients who are human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) negative or HIV positive and includes isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. It is not correct to begin with two drugs. The three-drug regimen is used for inductions in areas with resistance to either isoniazid or rifampin. A patient with HIV who takes protease inhibitors develops tuberculosis and will begin treatment. Which drug regimen will the provider prescribe for this patient? A. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol + rifabutin B. Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol C. Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol D. Isoniazid + rifabutin - ANSWER - Patients with HIV who take protease inhibitors are susceptible to drug interactions with rifampin, which accelerates the metabolism of protease inhibitors. Rifabutin can be substituted for rifampin in patients with HIV, because the degree of acceleration of this metabolism is less. A three-drug regimen would increase drug resistance, as would a two-drug regimen. A patient comes to a clinic for tuberculosis medications 2 weeks after beginning treatment with a four-drug induction phase. The patient's sputum culture remains positive, and no drug resistance is noted. At this point, the provider will take what action? A. Change the regimen to a two-drug continuation phase. B. Continue the four-drug regimen and recheck the sputum in 2 weeks. C. Obtain a chest radiograph and consider adding another drug to the regimen. D. Question the patient about adherence to the drug regimen. - ANSWER - In patients with positive pretreatment sputum test results, sputum should be evaluated every 2 to 4 weeks until cultures are negative and then monthly thereafter. In the absence of drug resistance, treatment with the same regimen should continue. Sputum cultures should become negative in over 90% of patients in 3 or more months. The induction phase should last 2 months, so this patient should remain on a four-drug regimen. It is not necessary to order a chest radiograph or to add another drug at this stage of treatment. The patient is stable and has not developed symptoms that cause concern, so the patient does not need to be questioned about adherence. Which patient will the provider determine should begin treatment for tuberculosis? A. A patient with HIV and a tuberculin skin test result of a 4-mm region of induration B. A recent immigrant from a country with a high prevalence of TB with a 10-mm region of induration C. A patient with no known risk factors who has a job-related tuberculin skin test result of a 12-mm area of induration D. An intravenous drug abuser with a tuberculin skin test result of a 5-mm region of induration - ANSWER - The immigrant is considered to be at moderate risk, meaning that a 10-mm area of induration on a tuberculin skin test (TST) is considered a positive result. After being evaluated for active TB, this patient should be treated for latent TB. A patient with HIV is considered high risk, but this patient has a negative TST result of less than 5 mm. For a low-risk patient receiving a screening TST for a job, the area of induration must be 15 mm or greater to be considered a positive result. An IV drug abuser is in the moderate-risk category; an area of induration of 10 mm or greater is needed to be considered a positive TST result.

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Subido en
18 de septiembre de 2024
Número de páginas
67
Escrito en
2024/2025
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Advanced Pharm Final Exam With 100% Correct Q&A Top
Verified Solution With Rationale (A+ SCORED)



A patient is given a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the basis for the provider's decision to
prescribe methotrexate?



A. A methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs.

B. Starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.

C. Methotrexate can prevent cancer in addition to managing the arthritis.

D. Methotrexate is the only drug known to cure rheumatoid arthritis. - ANSWER ✔ - B.) Current guidelines
for treatment of RA recommend starting a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) early—within
3 months of diagnosis for most patients—in order to delay joint degeneration. Methotrexate is expensive
and has more toxic side effects. Although methotrexate is also used to treat cancer, it does not have a
role in cancer prevention. There is currently no cure for rheumatoid arthritis.



A provider prescribes transdermal estrogen spray. Which patient statement demonstrates understanding
of the application of this medication?



A. "I will apply the medication to my waistline and shoulders."

B. "My abdomen and arms are the primary point of application."

C. "This medication will work best if applied to my breasts and abdomen."

D. "I need to put the medication on my thighs and calves." - ANSWER ✔ - D.) The top of the thighs and the
back of the calves are the preferred sites for application of the transdermal spray. The waistline and
abdomen are used for the patches. The gel is applied to arms. Breasts are not used for application of
transdermal estrogen.



For which patient situation will a provider select combination estrogen and progestin therapy over
estrogen-only therapy for the management of menopausal symptoms?



A. No history of a hysterectomy

,B. Has osteoporosis

C. At risk for myocardial infarction

D. History of deep vein thrombosis - ANSWER ✔ - A.) In patients who still have a uterus, progestin is
necessary to reduce the risk of endometrial carcinoma. Progestins do not have effects on bone density
and do not decrease the risk of MI or DVT.



A patient with osteopenia asks about the benefits of hormone therapy in preventing osteoporosis. Which
statement by the provider is correct?



A. "Estrogen can help reverse bone loss."

B. "Hormone therapy increases bone resorption."

C. "Hormone therapy does not decrease fracture risk."

D. "When hormone therapy is discontinued, bone loss resumes." - ANSWER ✔ - D.) Benefits of HT to
prevent osteoporosis are not permanent; bone loss resumes when HT is discontinued. HT does not reverse
bone loss that has already occurred. HT reduces bone resorption. HT can decrease fracture risk.



The patient who reports vaginal dryness and pain with intercourse is opposed to using lubricants but is
concerned about hormonal adverse effects. Which hormone formulation will the provider choose to
decrease systemic estrogen effects?



A. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

B. Transdermal estrogen

C. Low-dose estrogens

D. A vaginal conjugated estrogen - ANSWER ✔ - D.) Estrogens for intravaginal administration are used for
local effects, primarily to treat vulval and vaginal atrophy, so there is a lower risk of systemic effects.
Medroxyprogesterone is a progesterone used for contraception and is not indicated for this condition.
The other formulations will have more systemic effect than the vaginal formulation.



A prescriber provides teaching to a patient about the risks and benefits of estrogen therapy (ET) in the
peri-menopausal period. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

,A. "Estrogen therapy can provide protection against breast cancer."

B. "Estrogen therapy decreases the risk for thrombosis and stroke."

C. "Estrogen therapy increases the risk for osteoporosis."

D. "Estrogen therapy is the most effective drug for suppression of menopausal symptoms." - ANSWER ✔
- D.) ET is the most effective means to suppress menopausal symptoms. It can prevent osteoporosis, but
it carries risks of breast cancer and stroke.



A 50-year-old postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy has moderate to severe vasomotor
symptoms and is discussing estrogen therapy (ET) with the provider. When the patient expresses concerns
about adverse effects of ET, what information will the provider share with her?



A. An estrogen-progesterone product will reduce side effects.

B. An intravaginal preparation may be best for her.

C. Side effects of ET are uncommon among women her age.

D. Transdermal preparations have fewer side effects. - ANSWER ✔ - D.) Transdermal preparations of
estrogen have fewer adverse effects, use lower doses of estrogen, and have less fluctuation of estrogen
levels than oral preparations. Progesterone is contraindicated in women who have undergone a
hysterectomy. Intravaginal preparations are most useful for treating local estrogen deficiency, such as
vaginal and vulvar atrophy, but this patient has severe vasomotor symptoms. Side effects of ET can be
common regardless of age.



While reviewing contraceptive options for a patient interested in intrauterine devices (IUDs), which
patient would not be a candidate for an IUD insertion during today's visit?



A. A woman with four children

B. A teenager

C. A woman with a suspected chlamydia infections.

D. A nulliparous woman - ANSWER ✔ - C.) An active infection is a contraindication for today's insertion.
You will need to treat the infection first. All other options are appropriate.

, An adolescent female patient with multiple sexual partners has difficulty adhering to her daily oral
contraceptive schedule. Which contraceptive product will the provider recommend?



A. Pull out method

B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate

C. Tubal ligation

D. Progestin-only oral contraceptives - ANSWER ✔ - B.) The pull-out method is not an effective for of
contraception. Tubal ligation carries surgical risks and should not be used by adolescents because it is
irreversible. Progestin-only oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time every day; therefore, the
issue of adherence remains a concern. MDPA is the best option of the choices.



When changing a patient's combination oral contraceptive (OC) to a different combination product, what
advice will the provider give the patient?



A. Stop the old OC and begin taking the new product immediately.

B. Change products at the beginning of her next cycle.

C. Stop the old OC 1 week before starting the new OC.

D. Use an alternate method of contraception while transitioning to the new OC. - ANSWER ✔ - B.) When
changing one combination OC for another, the change is best made at the beginning of a new cycle. It is
not correct to begin taking the new product immediately or to stop the old product 1 week before starting
the new product. An alternate means of contraception is unnecessary.



A patient who prescribed a combination oral contraceptive begins taking carbamazepine. After several
weeks, the patient reports that she has begun experiencing spotting during her cycle. What action will the
provider discuss with the patient to address this occurrence?



A. Using an alternative form of birth control such as condoms instead of oral contraceptives

B. Changing to an oral contraceptive with increased estrogen

C. Decreasing the carbamazepine dosage

D. Increasing the carbamazepine dosage - ANSWER ✔ - B.) Carbamazepine induces hepatic cytochrome
P450 enzymes and thus accelerates the metabolism of oral contraceptives. Spotting is a sign of reduced
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