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Bates The Breasts and Axillae Verified Case Study

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Bates The Breasts and Axillae Verified Case Study 1. A 72-year-old woman presents with a bloody discharge from her left breast for three months. She denies trauma to the area and has a family history of cancer. What is the most likely cause of the nipple discharge? A) Benign breast abnormality B) Breast cancer C) Galactorrhea Correct answer: B) Breast cancer 2. A 44-year-old woman comes to your clinic with dry skin on her right nipple and a palpable lump underneath. She has no other symptoms and denies trauma to the area. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Paget's disease B) Eczema C) Psoriasis D) Contact dermatitis Correct answer: A) Paget's disease 3. A 56-year-old woman presents with an unusual change in the direction of her left nipple and a palpable mass lateral to the areola. She has no other symptoms and smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Nipple retraction B) Inverted nipple C) Breast cancer D) Fibroadenoma Correct answer: A) Nipple retraction A 19-year-old female comes to your office, complaining of a clear discharge from her right breast for 2 months. She states that she noticed it when she and her boyfriend were "messing around" and he squeezed her nipple. She continues to have this discharge anytime she squeezes that nipple. She denies any trauma to her breasts. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies any pregnancies. Both of her parents are healthy. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks three to four beers a week. On examination her breasts are symmetric with no skin changes. You are able to express clear discharge from her right nipple. You feel no discrete masses and her axillae are normal. The remainder of her heart, lung, abdominal, and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. A urine pregnancy test is negative.What cause of nipple discharge is the most likely in her circumstance? A) Benign breast abnormality B) Breast ca ️A) Benign breast abnormality Nipple discharge in benign breast abnormalities tends to be clear and unilateral. The discharge is usually not spontaneous. This patient needs to be told to stop compressing her nipple. If the problem still persists after the patient has stopped compressing the nipple, further workup is warranted. A 23-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for an annual examination. She has recently become sexually active and wants to be placed on birth control. Her only complaint is that the skin in her armpits has become darker. She states it looks like dirt, and she scrubs her skin nightly with soap and water but the color stays. Her past medical symptoms consist of acne and mild obesity. Her periods have been irregular for 3 years. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has high blood pressure. The patient denies using tobacco but has four to five drinks on Friday and Saturday nights. She denies any illegal drug use. On examination you see a mildly obese female who is breathing comfortably. Her vital signs are unremarkable. Looking under her axilla, you see dark, velvet-like skin. Her annual examination is otherwise unremarkable.What disorder of the breast or axilla is she most likely to have? A) Peau d ️B) Acanthosis nigricans Acanthosis nigricans can be associated with an internal malignancy, but in most cases it is a benign dermatologic condition associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, consisting of acne, hirsutism, obesity, irregular periods, infertility, ovarian cysts, and early onset type 2 diabetes. It is also known to correlate with insulin resistance. A 43-year-old store clerk comes to your office upset because she has found an enlarged lymph node under her left arm. She states she found it yesterday when she was feeling pain under her arm during movement. She states the lymph node is about an inch long and is very painful. She checks her breasts monthly and gets a yearly mammogram (her last was 2 months ago), and until now everything has been normal. She states she is so upset because her mother died in her 50s of breast cancer. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs. Her father is in good health. On examination you see a tense female appearing her stated age. On visual inspection of her left axilla you see a tense red area. There is no scarring around the axilla. Palpating this area, you feel a 2-cm tender, movable lymph node underlying hot skin. Other shotty nodes are also in the area. Visualization of both breasts is normal. Palpation of her r ️B) Lymphadenopathy of infectious origin A lymph node enlarged because of infection is generally hot, tender, and red. Close examination of the skin that drains to that lymph node region is advised. Often there will be a cut or scratch over the involved arm that has an infectious agent. An example is cat scratch disease. A 63-year-old nurse comes to your office, upset because she has found an enlarged lymph node under her right arm. She states she found it last week while taking a shower. She isn't sure if she has any breast lumps because she doesn't know how to do self-exams. She states her last mammogram was 5 years ago and it was normal. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She quit smoking 2 years ago after a 55-packs/year history. She denies using any illegal drugs and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother died of a heart attack and her father died of a stroke. She has no children. On examination you see an older female appearing her stated age. On visual inspection of her right axilla you see nothing unusual. Palpating this area, you feel a 2-cm hard, fixed lymph node. She denies any tenderness. Visualization of both breasts is normal. Palpation of her left axill ️A) Breast cancer Metastatic lymph nodes tend to be hard, nontender, and fixed, often to the rib cage. Although the patient has no family history of breast cancer, she is at a slightly increased risk due to her never having had children. A 40-year-old mother of two presents to your off

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Subido en
11 de julio de 2024
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Bates The Breasts and Axillae Verified Case Study


1. A 72-year-old woman presents with a bloody discharge from her left breast for three months. She
denies trauma to the area and has a family history of cancer. What is the most likely cause of the nipple
discharge?



A) Benign breast abnormality

B) Breast cancer

C) Galactorrhea



Correct answer: B) Breast cancer



2. A 44-year-old woman comes to your clinic with dry skin on her right nipple and a palpable lump
underneath. She has no other symptoms and denies trauma to the area. What is the most likely
diagnosis?



A) Paget's disease

B) Eczema

C) Psoriasis

D) Contact dermatitis



Correct answer: A) Paget's disease



3. A 56-year-old woman presents with an unusual change in the direction of her left nipple and a
palpable mass lateral to the areola. She has no other symptoms and smokes two packs of cigarettes a
day. What is the most likely diagnosis?



A) Nipple retraction

B) Inverted nipple

C) Breast cancer

D) Fibroadenoma

, Correct answer: A) Nipple retraction

A 19-year-old female comes to your office, complaining of a clear discharge from her right breast for 2
months. She states that she noticed it when she and her boyfriend were "messing around" and he
squeezed her nipple. She continues to have this discharge anytime she squeezes that nipple. She denies
any trauma to her breasts. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies any pregnancies. Both
of her parents are healthy. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks three to four beers a
week. On examination her breasts are symmetric with no skin changes. You are able to express clear
discharge from her right nipple. You feel no discrete masses and her axillae are normal. The remainder
of her heart, lung, abdominal, and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. A urine pregnancy test is
negative.What cause of nipple discharge is the most likely in her circumstance?



A) Benign breast abnormality

B) Breast ca ✔️A) Benign breast abnormality



Nipple discharge in benign breast abnormalities tends to be clear and unilateral. The discharge is usually
not spontaneous. This patient needs to be told to stop compressing her nipple. If the problem still
persists after the patient has stopped compressing the nipple, further workup is warranted.



A 23-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for an annual examination. She has recently
become sexually active and wants to be placed on birth control. Her only complaint is that the skin in
her armpits has become darker. She states it looks like dirt, and she scrubs her skin nightly with soap
and water but the color stays. Her past medical symptoms consist of acne and mild obesity. Her periods
have been irregular for 3 years. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has high blood pressure.
The patient denies using tobacco but has four to five drinks on Friday and Saturday nights. She denies
any illegal drug use. On examination you see a mildly obese female who is breathing comfortably. Her
vital signs are unremarkable. Looking under her axilla, you see dark, velvet-like skin. Her annual
examination is otherwise unremarkable.What disorder of the breast or axilla is she most likely to have?



A) Peau d ✔️B) Acanthosis nigricans



Acanthosis nigricans can be associated with an internal malignancy, but in most cases it is a benign
dermatologic condition associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, consisting of acne, hirsutism,
obesity, irregular periods, infertility, ovarian cysts, and early onset type 2 diabetes. It is also known to
correlate with insulin resistance.
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