CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE

1. What type of centrifuge isrecommended forserum separator tubes (SSTs)? a. Horizontal-head centrifuge b. Ultracentrifuge c. Angle-head centrifuge d. Cytocentrifuge A 2. What type of error isinconsistent, described as having no trend or means of predicting it? a. Random error b. Systematic error c. Constant error d. Proportional error A 3. Which of the following analytes isincreased when there is a change in posture from supine to upright position? a. Total protein b. Calcium c. Aldosterone d. Magnesium B 4. What is considered to be the most basic pipet? a. Automatic pipets b. Glass pipets c. Pasteur pipets d. Volumetric pipets B 5. All are electromechanical methods, except? a. Potentiometry b. Amperometry c. Polarography d. Nephelometry D 6. Which of the following tests is an indication of overall glucose homeostasis? a. FBS b. OGTT c. 2-hr PPBS d. RBS A 7. A patient is admitted with cirrhosis. If a serum protein electrophoresis is performed, which of the following globulin fractions will be most often be elevated? a. Alpha-1 b. Beta c. Gamma d. Alpha-2 C CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 8. An inverted A/G ratio can be seen in all of the following conditions, except? a. Immunodeficiency b. Hepatic cirrhosis c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Monoclonal gammopathy A 9. All of the following are tropic hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland, except? a. GH b. FSH c. ACTH d. TSH A 10. ALP, Lipase, Amylase and Cholinesterase are examples of what class of enzymes? a. Transferases b. Hydrolases c. Lyases d. Isomerases B 11. Which of the following are effects of antidiuretic hormone? a. Increased water retention, decreased serum sodium, increased blood pressure b. Increased water retention, increased serum sodium, increased blood pressure c. Increased water retention, decreased serum sodium, decreased blood pressure d. Decreased water retention, increased serum sodium, increased blood pressure A 12. In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data. a. Mean b. Median c. F-test d. T-test D 13. It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present? a. Calibrator b. Reagent c. Standard d. Control D 14. In a person with decreased creatinine clearance, which of the following will most likely accompany an increase in serum creatinine? a. Ammonia b. Amino acids c. BUN d. Uric acid C CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 15. What lipoprotein is associated with the removal of cholesterol out of the cells? a. HDL b. Chylomicrons c. LDL d. VLDL A 16. Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at what rate? a. 2 mg/dl/hour b. 4 mg/dl/hour c. 7 mg/dl/hour d. 15 mg/dl/hour C 17. What age group has a moderate risk cut off value of >240 mg/dL and high risk cut of value of >260 mg/dL for total cholesterol? a. 2-19 years old b. 20-29 years old c. 30-39 years old d. 40 years old and over D 18. Which of these will result to an increased growth hormone? 1. Amino acids 2. Glucose loading 3. Physiologic stress 4. Deep sleep a. 1,2,3,4 b. 2,3,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,4 C 19. Blood gas levels of a person with myocardial infarction? a. pCO2 decreased, pH normal b. pCO2 decreased, pH decreased c. pCO2 increased, pH increased d. pCO2 normal, pH increased B 20. Prerenal azotemia can be seen in which of these conditions? 1. Renal failure 2. Stress 3. Renal lithiasis 4. Liver disease 5. Hypovolemia 6. Congestive heart failure a. 2,4,5,6 b. 1,3,5,6 c. 2,5,6 d. 4,5,6 C CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 21. A protein with an inverse correlation to BMI, low levels indicating increased risk of obesity, heart disease, type II DM and metabolic syndrome. a. Beta-trace protein b. Adiponectin c. CX-telopeptide d. Transthyretin B 22. How long doesit take for short acting insulin to bring glucose back to normal? a. 2-4 hours b. 3-6 hours c. 10-12 hours d. 12-18 hours B 23. Which of these enzymes doesn’t have isoenzymes? a. ALT b. ALP c. AST d. ACP A 24. Which of these assesses the excretory and synthetic function of the liver? a. Bilirubin b. Albumin c. AST d. APTT A 25. Which of these methods for creatinine determination is rapid with increased specificity? a. Colorimetric : Endpoint b. Colorimetric : Kinetic c. Enzymatic : Endpoint d. Enzymatic : Kinetic B 26. The bilirubin level of a neonate is 28 mg/dl. When will you report the result? a. As soon as possible b. As soon as the doctor calls c. After 4 to 6 hours d. Immediately D 27. How often should a POCT instrument be quality controlled? a. Every week b. On each day of use c. Monthly d. Every preventive maintenance B 28. An assayed sample that is provided as an unknown to laboratories participating in proficiency testing programs? a. Reference b. External control c. Blind sample d. Standard C CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 29. Which of the following is true about Fahey and McKelvey method? a. Kinetic method b. Measured after 18 hours c. Diameter = log of concentration d. All of the above D 30. Makes use of diffraction gratings and involves measurement of the light absorbed by atoms dissociated by heat. a. Flame Emission Photometry b. Reflectance Spectrophotometry c. Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry d. Fluorometry C 31. Cardioprotective value of HDL? a. 30 mg/dl b. >30 mg/dl c. >60 mg/dl d. 40-59 mg/dl C 32. Enzyme with moderate specificity for the liver, cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle? a. ALT b. LDH c. CK d. AST D 33. The type of non-ionizing radiation where a radiofrequency coil in ICP￾mass spectrometer is used? a. Gamma b. Ultraviolet c. Low frequency d. Infrared C 34. Drug distribution and excretion exceeds drug absorption. What is the effect to drug concentration? a. Increased b. Spurious increased c. Decreased d. Spurious decreased C 35. Measurement of which of the following is used clinically to assess renal tubular function in renal transplant patients, with elevated levels indicating organ rejection? a. Cystatin C b. Creatinine c. Myoglobin d. B2 Microglobulin D CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 36. True regarding specimen collection and preparation for ammonia determination? 1. Venous blood should be obtained without trauma and placed on ice immediately. 2. Heparin and EDTA are suitable anticoagulants. 3. Samples should be centrifuged at 0 to 4°C within 20 minutes of collection and the plasma or serum removed. 4. Erythrocytes contain two to three times as much ammonia as plasma; hemolysis should be avoided. 5. Cigarette smoking by the patient is a significant source of ammonia contamination. a. 1,2,3,4,5 b. 3,4,5 c. 1,3,4,5 d. 1 and 5 A 37. Test for nondiabetic patient is , test for diabetic patient is . a. HbA1c, FBS b. FBS, HbA1c c. RBS, HbA1c d. FBS, OGTT B 38. All are immunosuppressive drugs, except? a. Tacrolimus b. Rapamycin c. Carbamazepine d. Cyclosporine C 39. Specificity of AST in order? a. Liver, Heart, Skeletal muscle b. Heart, Liver, Smooth muscle c. Liver, Heart, Smooth muscle d. Heart, Liver, Skeletal muscle A 40. These laboratory findings are most likely in which of the following conditions? Elevated: ALT, AST, LD, ALP and Bilirubin Normal: Total protein, albumin and ammonia a. Cirrhosis b. Hepatitis c. Alcoholic liver disease d. Bile duct obstruction B 41. Value of sodium fluoride when used as anticoagulant? a. 2 mg/ml of blood b. 10 mg/ml of blood c. 5 mg/ml of blood d. 3.2 mg/ml of blood B CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 42. Which of the following is the principle involved in pH measurement? a. Amperometry b. Potentiometry c. Coulometry d. Polarography B 43. Which of the following results is most likely of Klinefelter’s syndrome? a. Increased testosterone, decreased FSH and LH b. Increased testosterone, FSH and LH c. Decreased testosterone, increased FSH and LH d. Decreased testosterone, FSH and LH C 44. Which of the following is subject for therapeutic drug monitoring? a. Salicylates b. Acetaminophen c. Ibuprofen d. None of these D 45. Biochemical marker for bone resorption includes: 1. C telopeptides 2. N telopeptides 3. BSAP 4. TRAP 5. Osteocalcin 6. Hydroxyproline a. 1,2,4,6 b. 1,2,3,4,5,6 c. 1,4,5,6 d. 1,2,4,5,6 A 46. Which of the following is a rare autosomal disorder characterized by complete absence of HDL due to a mutation in the ATP-binding cassette protein A-1? a. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome b. Niemann-Pick syndrome c. Tangier’s disease d. Fish-eye disease C 47. Which of the following speaks about the difference of HDL and LDL from Chylomicrons and VLDL? a. Apoprotein b. Primarily delivers TAG c. Primarily delivers cholesterol d. Involved in the exogenous transport of fats C CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 48. Which of these is/are true regarding venipuncture? 1. The angle for routine phlebotomy is around 30° 2. The tourniquetshould be wrapped 7.5 to 10cm above the puncture site 3. The site of choice for venipuncture is the median cubital vein 4. The disinfectant should be applied with enough friction and allowed to dry a. 1 and 2 b. 1,2 and 3 c. 3 only d. 1,2,3 and 4 D 49. Which of these is the best course of action after encountering pseudohyponatremia? a. Determine anion gap b. Measure serum potassium c. Measure serum osmolality d. Measure serum chloride C 50. All of these statements regarding electrolytes are true, except? 1. Chloride is the main counterbalance of sodium 2. The relationship between chloride and bicarbonate is reciprocal 3. Sodium and potassium has an absolute inverse relationship 4. Calcium is the chief cation in the body a. 1 and 3 b. 3 and 4 c. 3 only d. 2 and 3 C 51. A common anionic dye employed for protein dye-binding techniques with high affinity and selectivity for albumin? a. Bromcresol green b. Methyl orange c. HABA d. Bromcresol purple A 52. All of the following are factors that affect the right result, except? a. Right patient b. Right test c. Right identification d. Right price D 53. In which of the following disease states is conjugated bilirubin a major serum component? a. Biliary obstruction b. Neonatal jaundice c. Hemolytic anemia d. Crigler-Najjarsyndrome A CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 54. Which of these anticoagulants should not be used in collecting specimen for BUN determination, especially when the enzymatic method is employed? a. Fluoride b. Citrate c. Fluoride and citrate d. EDTA C 55. Hormone producers: a. Hypothalamus b. Hypothalamus, Anterior Pituitary c. Hypothalamus, Anterior Pituitary, Parathyroid d. Hypothalamus, Anterior Pituitary, Posterior Pituitary, Parathyroid C 56. Which of these extracellular solutes are the major contributors to plasma osmolality, accounting to almost 92% of plasma osmolality? a. Sodium, Glucose and BUN b. Sodium, Glucose and Proteins c. Sodium, Chloride and Bicarbonate d. Sodium, Chloride and Potassium C 57. Which of these proteins is designated for HDL? a. Apo A b. Apo B c. Apo C d. Apo D A 58. All of the following are included in work practice control, except? 1. Handwashing after each patient contact 2. Immunization for hepatitis 3. Warning signage 4. Puncture-resistant containersfor disposal and transport of needles and sharps 5. No eating, drinking, or smoking in laboratory 6. Biological safety cabinets and fume hoods 7. Splash guards a. 3,4,6,7 b. 4,6,7 c. 1,2,3,5 d. 2,3,4,6,7 B 59. All are negative acute phase reactants, except? a. Transthyretin b. Transferrin c. Albumin d. a1-Antitrypsin D CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PRE TEST 190 QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTIONS/A+ GRADE/2023 60. Hyperglycemic factors are usually released when the blood glucose level reaches: a. 45mg/dl b. <50mg/dl c. <55mg/dl d. <70mg/dl D 61. Which of these statements does not refer to positive predictive value? a. probability than an individual with a positive assay result has the disease or condition b. proportion of persons with disease in whom the test is positive c. chance of an individual having a given disease or condition if the test is abnormal d. certainty that a positive result is correct B 62. A decrease in serum albumin and an increase in alpha-2 region on SPE is indicative of: a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Liver cirrhosis c. Pulmonary emphysema d. Multiple myeloma A 63. A system that verified the reliability of analytical test results through the use of standards, controls and statistical analysis is? a. Quality assessment b. Quality control c. Total quality management d. Continuous quality improvement B 64. Up to 10% of cases of acute pancreatitis are associated with normal levels of amylase; this finding is most common in people with: a. Hypernatremia b. Hyperbilirubinemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypertriglyceridemia D 65. What is the proper fasting requirement for lipid profile? a. 10-12 hours b. 10-16 hours c. 8 to 12 hours d. 12 to 14 hours D 66. Which of these is not used in solving for LDL concentration? a. Total Cholesterol b. VLDL c. HDL d. Triglyceride B 67. Most useful in assessing the overall patency of the bile duct? a. Alkaline phosphatase b. Albumin c. Total and direct bilirubin ratio d. Total bilirubin C 68. Sodium determination by indirect ion selective electrode isfalsely decreased by: a. Elevated chloride levels b. Elevated lipid levels c. Decreased protein levels d. Decreased albumin levels B 69. Cocaine is metabolized to: a. Carbamazepine b. Caffeine c. Benzoylecgonine d. Hydrocodone C