VTNE Lab Questions set 1

VTNE Lab Questions set 1 When performing a direct fecal smear to look for "swimmers" or parasitic trophozoites, the feces cannot be older than which of the following? 12 hours 5 minutes 1 hour 24 hours if not refrigerated 1 Hour Explanation Fresh feces are needed for a direct smear. The smear should be made and read within 1 hour of fecal collection for most accurate results. Also, serial samples are ideal. Sometimes 4 to 5 smears are needed to find an organism. A negative direct smear does not rule out a parasite. Which of these are used in the minor cross-match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog? Donor red blood cells, donor plasma Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma Explanation The correct answer is recipient red blood cells, donor plasma. In a minor crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient's red blood cells. Which of the following is not a typical constituent of a urine sediment sample? Mast cells Red blood cells Squamous cells White blood cells Mast cells Explanation Mast cells would not be expected in a urine sediment sample. Squamous cells, transitional cells, and renal cells may be found in urine sediment. Squamous cells will likely be the largest cell visualized in a urine sample. They are usually derived from the vagina, vulva, or urethra. Red blood cells are a normal finding when in small numbers. Excessive red blood cells may be a sign of disease. White blood cells should also be present in a small number and large numbers of these cells are associated with disease. You are doing a fecal flotation and observe these eggs under the microscope. They have bipolar plugs; one plug on each end (see image). What are these? Whipworm eggs Hookworm eggs Tapeworm eggs Roundworm eggs Whipworm eggs Explanation The bipolar plugs on the eggs are typical of Trichuris vulpis (whipworm). A blood smear is evaluated and is noted to have a large variation in cell size as well as a decrease in cell color. What is the appropriate terminology to describe this blood smear? Anisokaryosis and macrochromasia Microcytosis and microchromasia Anisocytosis and hypochromasia Macrocytosis and hyperchromasia Anisocytosis and hypochromasia Explanation Anisocytosis is the descriptive term for cell size variation. Red blood cells that have less color than is normally anticipated are said to by hypochromic. Cells with decreased pallor are likely deficient in hemoglobin. Cells with increased color are hyperchromic. Macrocytes are cells that are larger than typical, while microcytes are the opposite. Varying degrees of color among cells is termed polychromasia and is usually an indication of different aged (young and old) red blood cells present. Younger cells will have ribosomes which give them a different color. PowerPage Hematology Which test would provide the best measure of liver function? Serum phosphorus level Bile acids Serum BUN level Ultrasound Bile acids Explanation When a meal is consumed, the gall bladder contracts and releases bile into the upper small intestine as needed for digestion. The bile acids break down lipids during this process of digestion. The bile acids are then absorbed by the intestine and into the portal bloodstream and returned back to the liver. If the liver is functioning well, the bile acids are removed from the bloodstream and returned to the gall bladder until they are needed again. Comparing the two blood levels (pre- and post-prandial bile acids) allows the veterinarian to see how well the liver is functioning. Bile acids are removed from portal blood by the hepatocytes (liver cells). If the liver cells are not working as they should, the bile acids remain in circulation and enter the systemic circulation where the elevated levels are measured by the bile acids test. Ultrasound is good for looking at architecture of the liver, but does not evaluate function of the hepatocytes. BUN and phosphorus are most often looked at when evaluating kidney disease. What minimum quantity of feces is required to run a reliable fecal test for ova and parasites? 2 grams 0.5 grams 10 grams 5 grams 2 grams Explanation Two grams of feces, about the size of a garbanzo bean, is the smallest quantity of feces that would be acceptable to run a reliable fecal flotation with zinc centrifugation. Five grams is ideal. What instrument is used to measure the urine specific gravity? Refractometer Glucometer Barometer Manometer Refractometer Explanation A refractometer is used to measure urine specific gravity. The same refractometer is used to measure the protein level of blood samples. Which of the following is not an anticipated finding when evaluating a urine sample after performing a cystocentesis? Erythrocytes Struvite crystals Calcium oxalate crystals 5-10 white blood cells per high-powered field 5-10 white blood cells per high-powered field Explanation There should be less than 0-5 white blood cells per high-powered field in a urine sample. Erythrocytes are not uncommon when performing a cystocentesis. This can occur secondary to trauma to the bladder wall when performing urine collection. Keep in mind that an excessive presence of blood can be abnormal. Struvite and calcium oxalate crystaluria is not necessarily abnormal. What is a round or spherical shaped bacteria called? Bacillus Nematode Spirochete Coccus Pleomorphic Coccus Explanation Cocci are spherical bacteria. Bacilli are rods. Spirochetes are spiral shaped. A nematode is a parasite, not a bacterium. Pleomorphic describes variably shaped organisms. Which of the following tests amplifies DNA? ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) Cytology Histopathology PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) Flow cytometry PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) Explanation PCR is a method of amplifying a segment of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) segments. ELISA is a test that detects the presence of antibodies or antigens. Flow cytometry is a technique used to sort cells. Cytology and histopathology are qualitative tests to look at cellular morphology under the microscope. Where on a primate's body are they tested for tuberculosis? Eyelid Leg Foot Arm Eyelid Explanation Primates are tested for tuburculosis with an intradermal skin test on the eyelid. This allows the reading to be done without having to restrain the animal. It is much safer for personnel and less stress for patient. How is a bull tested for Trichomonas foetus? Blood smear Culture of smegma Microscopic exam of sperm Wet mount of feces Blood culture Culture of smegma Explanation Trichomonas is a venereal disease of cattle caused by the flagellated protozoan Trichomonas foetus. The prepucial hairs are shaved and the prepuce cleansed and dried. A dry plastic insemination pipette is placed into the prepuce and used to suction and scrape the prepucial membrane and penis to collect approximately 1 mL of smegma for culture. The culture is placed into a vial with 2 mL of saline and then placed on Diamond's medium for culture. You run a CBC on a dog that is heartworm positive. Which blood cell is commonly elevated in dogs with heartworm disease or other parasitic infections? Platelets Red blood cells Monocytes Bands Eosinophils Eosinophils Explanation Parasitic infections (such as heartworm, intestinal parasites, and fleas) often cause an elevated eosinophil count. Other diseases which may cause an elevation of eosinophils include allergies, chronic dermatitis, and feline asthma. You are looking microscopically at a swab of the ear canal from a cat that has been head shaking and scratching at the ears. You identify an 8-legged mite. What is the name the ear mite? Demodex gatoi Trichodectes canis Sarcoptes scabiei Otodectes cynotis Ctenocephalides felis Otodectes cynotis Explanation Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite of dogs and cats (also seen in ferrets). These can result in head shaking and ear rubbing and stimulate production of brown waxy discharge. They frequently can be visualized if a swab is made and examined microscopically. If the serum at the top of a microhematocrit tube appears cloudy, how is it described? Normal Lipemic Icteric Hemolyzed Lipemic Explanation Lipemic serum appears cloudy, and this should be recorded. It may be from a pathologic condition; it is also commonly seen in blood samples from patients that were not fasted. Normal serum has a clear to slightly yellow color. Hemolyzed serum appears red. Icteric serum has a strong yellow color. Which method is most useful for looking for Otodectes? Knott's method Sedi-stain Hematoxylin and Eosin stain Mineral oil swab slide They are visible with the naked eye Mineral oil swab slide Explanation Otodectes cynotis is the ear mite. It is most easily observed by taking debris from the ear from a swab and making a mineral oil smear on a slide for observation under the microscope. Knott's is used in looking for microfilariae. PowerPage Ectoparasites (Small Animal) In which species is it common to observe Rouleaux formation in a blood smear? Avian Canine Equine Bovine Equine Explanation It is very common for horses to have blood cells arranged like a stack of coins (Rouleaux formation). This is not typically seen in the other species listed and may be indicative of an underlying inflammatory process in those species. Rouleaux formation may be a normal physiologic finding in horses, cats, and pigs. Of these, it is by far the most common in horses. What is an erythrocyte? Platelet Red blood cell Cell with lack of central pallor White blood cell Red blood cell Explanation Erythrocytes are red blood cells. Leukocytes are white blood cells. Platelets are thrombocytes. Spherocytes are red blood cells that lack central pallor and are typically smaller due to the destruction of their membrane. These are seen when patients have immune mediated hemolytic anemia.