FSBPT Practice Exam 2 Questions With 100% Correct Solutions.

FSBPT Practice Exam 2 Questions With 100% Correct Solutions. A physical therapist assistant collects data on a patient's sharp-dull sensation. Two days later, the assistant retests the patient's sharp-dull sensation. Which of the following terms BEST describes the reliability of these measurements? 1. Parallel forms reliability 2. Internal consistency reliability 3. Interrater reliability 4. Intrarater reliability 4. Intrarater reliability The scenario does not demonstrate interrater reliability, because the same clinician is doing the measurements, rather than different individuals. 4. This scenario demonstrates intrarater reliability, because the same individual is using the same measurement tool. Urge incontinence is BEST characterized by which of the following descriptions? 1. Loss of urine that coincides with increases in intraabdominal pressure 2. Unexpected and uncontrolled loss of urine 3. Constant leaking of urine from an overdistended bladder 4. Difficulty reaching a toilet in time due to joint or muscle dysfunction 2. Unexpected and uncontrolled loss of urine 1. Stress incontinence, not urge incontinence, is best characterized by loss of urine during activities that increase intraabdominal pressure. 2. Urge incontinence is the sudden unexpected urge to urinate and the uncontrolled loss of urine. 3. Overflow incontinence, not urge incontinence, is the constant leaking of urine from a bladder that is full but unable to empty. 4. Functional incontinence, not urge incontinence, is best characterized as difficulty reaching a toilet in time due to joint or muscle dysfunction. A 16-year-old patient reports developing pain in the shoulders after a 3-year history of athletic competitions that required repetitive use of the arm in a movement pattern of lateral (external) rotation and horizontal abduction. Which of the following impairments is MOST consistent with the patient's mechanism of injury? 1. Weakness of the deltoid muscle 2. Anterior glenohumeral joint instability 3. Anterior glenohumeral joint hypomobility 4. Weakness of the latissimus dorsi muscle 2. Anterior glenohumeral joint instability 2. Anterior instability occurs when the abducted shoulder is repetitively placed in a position of lateral (external) rotation and horizontal abduction, as occurs in competitive swimming or various other sports. This can often lead to recurrent subluxations of the shoulder and ultimately to osteoarthritis or a torn rotator cuff. A patient who has an infected Stage 4 medial malleolar pressure injury is being treated with a comprehensive wound care program. Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate? 1. Low-amplitude direct current stimulation with positive polarity 2. High-voltage pulsed current electrical stimulation with positive polarity 3. Low-amplitude direct current stimulation with negative polarity 4. High-voltage pulsed current electrical stimulation with negative polarity 4. High-voltage pulsed current electrical stimulation with negative polarity 1. Low-amplitude direct current is used for transdermal drug delivery via iontophoresis (p. 274). Direct current can cause chemical effects that are caustic and could damage tissue (p. 231). This would not be appropriate for wound healing. The positive electrode is most effective to promote healing of a clean wound in the proliferative phase; however, the wound in this scenario is an infected wound and would require a negative polarity (p. 277). 2. High-voltage pulsed current stimulates tissue healing via migration of cells to the treatment area (p. 271). The positive electrode is most effective to promote healing of a clean wound in the proliferative phase; however, the wound in this scenario is an infected wound and would require a negative polarity (p. 277). 3. Low-amplitude direct current is used for transdermal drug delivery via iontophoresis (p. 274). Direct current can cause chemical effects that are caustic and could damage tissue (p. 231). This would not be appropriate for wound healing. 4. High-voltage pulsed current can stimulate tissue healing via galvanotaxis, which results in migration of certain cells to the treatment area based on polarity (p. 271). The negative electrode is recommended when infection is present (p. 277). To perform postural drainage to the superior segment of the left lower lobe of a patient's lungs, the patient should be in which of the following positions? 1. Prone position with pillows under the hips and the bed flat 2. Supine position with pillows under the knees and the bed flat 3. Right sidelying position with pillows behind the back and the foot of the bed elevated 4. Right sidelying position with pillows under the abdomen and the head of the bed elevated 1. Prone position with pillows under the hips and the bed flat WHEN THEY SAY SUPERIOR, THINK APICAL A patient has a transfemoral prosthesis in which the knee friction is inadequate. Which of the following gait deviations is the patient MOST likely to exhibit? 1. Uneven step length 2. Abduction in stance phase 3. Terminal impact in late swing phase 4. Lateral trunk bending in stance phase 3. Terminal impact in late swing will be observed if the friction is inadequate in a transfemoral prosthetic knee. 1. Uneven step length is the result of an uncomfortable socket or insufficient knee flexion. 2. Abduction in stance is the result of a long prosthesis, abducted hip joint, inadequate lateral wall adduction, or a sharp or high medial wall. 3. Terminal impact in late swing will be observed if the friction is inadequate in a transfemoral prosthetic knee. 4. Lateral trunk bending in stance is the result of a short prosthesis, inadequate lateral wall adduction, or a sharp or high medial wall. Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate to strengthen the abdominal muscles of a patient who has osteoporosis? 1. Trunk flexion in sitting position 2. Curl-ups from hooklying position 3. Posterior pelvic tilt in supine position 4. Diagonal curl-ups from hooklying position 3. Posterior pelvic tilt in supine position 1. Trunk flexion in sitting position puts the patient at high risk of vertebral compression fracture (pp. 349, 531-532). 2. Curl-ups from hooklying position primarily strengthen the rectus abdominis, but this position puts the spine in flexion, which is contraindicated for patients who have osteoporosis. This exercise places the patient at great risk of vertebral compression fracture. (pp. 349, 531-532) 3. With posterior pelvic tilts in supine position, the spine is kept in neutral with movement in the lumbar spine region only. The movement of the spine will help strengthen the rectus abdominis and stretch the lumbar extensors, which are potentially shortened from increased thoracic kyphosis. (pp. 349, 519) 4. Flexion and rotation are contraindicated for individuals who have osteoporosis. Diagonal curl-ups from hooklying position place the patient at great risk of vertebral compression fracture. (pp. 350, 531-532) A patient has bruising of the upper extremities, a "moon-face" appearance, redness of the face, a protruding abdomen, and hypertension. The patient MOST likely has which of the following conditions? 1. Hyperpituitarism 2. Addison disease 3. Cushing disease 4. Hypoparathyroidism 3. Cushing disease 1. Hyperpituitarism results in large hands and feet; enlarged jaw, nose, and lips; thickening of the facial tissues; and acromegaly. These signs and symptoms are not consistent with the description in the stem. (p. 479) 2. The signs and symptoms of Addison disease include weight loss, hypotension, and increased skin pigmentation. These signs and symptoms are not consistent with the description in the stem. (p. 498) 3. People who have Cushing syndrome/disease typically have hypertension, red face, "moon face," trunk obesity, and a tendency to bruise easily (p. 501). 4. Hypoparathyroidism results in cramps, spasms, nausea, vomiting, and brittle nails. These signs and symptoms are not consistent with the description in the stem. (p. 497) Which of the following measurement tools provides the BEST indicator of functional ability for a patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? 1. Berg Balance Test 2. 6-Minute Walk Test 3. Timed Up and Go Test 4. Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment 2. 6-Minute Walk Test 1. The Berg Balance Test is primarily a functional measure of balance and would not be used to assess submaximal exercise capacity (p. 213). 2. The 6-Minute Walk Test is a good predictor of functional ability in patients who have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and it is a simple tool used to assess submaximal exercise capacity (p. 248). 3. The Timed Up and Go Test is primarily a functional measurement of mobility and would not be used to assess submaximal exercise capacity (p. 217). 4. The Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment is primarily a functional measure of static and dynamic balance and would not be used to assess submaximal exercise capacity (pp. 213-214) After sustaining a cerebrovascular accident, a patient appears restless and impatient and has poor awareness of the impairments. The patient MOST likely has a lesion in which of the following areas? 1. Left cerebellum 2. Left cerebral hemisphere 3. Right cerebellum 4. Right cerebral hemisphere 4. Right cerebral hemisphere 1. Individuals who have cerebellar lesions lose regulation of movement, postural control, and muscle tone (p. 191). 2. Individuals who have left hemisphere lesions are frequently described as cautious, anxious, and disorganized (p. 607). 3. Individuals who have cerebellar lesions lose regulation of movement, postural control, and muscle tone (p. 191). 4. Individuals who have right hemisphere lesions are frequently described as quick and impulsive; they tend to overestimate their abilities while acting as if they are unaware of their deficits (p. 607) Which of the following intervention goals is MOST appropriate for a patient who has thoracic outlet syndrome? 1. To strengthen the levator scapulae and the rhomboids 2. To strengthen the rhomboids and lengthen the scalenes 3. To lengthen the middle trapezius and to strengthen the pectoralis major 4. To lengthen the pectoralis major and to strengthen the sternocleidomastoid 2. Common impairments associated with thoracic outlet syndrome include a muscle length-strength imbalance in the shoulder girdle, with tightness in the anterior and medial structures and weakness in the posterior and lateral structures. The scalenes are anterior to the shoulder, and the rhomboids are posterior to the shoulder. (pp. 365, 382) Which of the following shoe modifications is MOST appropriate for a patient who has limited dorsiflexion range of motion? 1. Heel flare 2. Metatarsal bar 3. Heel wedge 4. Rocker sole 4. Rocker sole 1. Heel flares increase the heel width, thus increasing the size of the foot's base of support (Webster, p. 232). 2. A metatarsal bar is positioned to relieve pressure from the metatarsal heads (O'Sullivan, p. 1292). 3. A heel wedge can improve leg length discrepancies and accommodate equinus deformity, or produce a small flexion moment of the knee (O'Sullivan, p. 1291; Webster, p. 214). 4. A rocker sole can substitute for restricted ankle and foot movements, including ankle plantar/dorsiflexion or toe extension in stance phase (O'Sullivan, p. 1291) Which of the following patient positions isolates hip and trunk control? 1. Standing 2. Quadruped 3. Modified plantigrade 4. Kneeling 4. Kneeling 1. Standing requires knee and ankle control and does not isolate the hips and trunk. 2. Quadruped requires control of the upper extremities in addition to the hips and trunk. 3. Modified plantigrade requires control of the upper extremities in addition to the hips and trunk. 4. Kneeling works to isolate control of the hips and trunk and removes control of the knees and ankles. Which of the following activities would be CONTRAINDICATED for a patient who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago? 1. Isometric exercises of the lower extremities 2. Exercises that increase the heart rate 10 to 20 bpm 3. Active range of motion exercises of the lower extremities 4. Exercises at the level of 2 metabolic equivalents (METs) 1. Isometric exercises of the lower extremities 1. Because isometric exercises are associated with increased risk of breath holding, which may cause dramatic changes in blood pressure and arrhythmias, isometric exercise is contraindicated for patients in the acute post myocardial infarction phase of cardiac rehabilitation (Hillegass). 2. An increase of up to 20 bpm is an acceptable range for increase in heart rate during exercise for patients in the acute post myocardial infarction phase of cardiac rehabilitation (ACSM). 3. Active range of motion exercises at the bedside or in standing position are indicated once the patient is stable for 24 hours following myocardial infarction (Hillegass; ACSM). 4. Exercise at a metabolic equivalent level of 2 to 4 is appropriate for patients in the acute post myocardial infarction phase of cardiac rehabilitation (Hillegass) A physical therapist assistant enters a stairwell while at work and finds an individual lying unconscious in prone position on the floor. Which of the following actions should the assistant take FIRST? 1. Turn the victim over into supine position. 2. Activate the emergency response system. 3. Take the patient's pulse and observe the patient for respirations. 4. Obtain an automated external defibrillator. 2. Activate the emergency response system. 1. Turning the person on the back could result in further injuries to the head and spine. The vital signs may be checked without moving the person; therefore, measuring vital signs would be a more immediate step. If the person was found to be pulseless, then it may be appropriate to turn the person on the back to begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation. 2. Activation of the emergency response system is the first step when a person is found unresponsive. The physical therapist assistant does not know the cause of the unresponsiveness. Shouting for help would be the most appropriate response prior to activation of the emergency response system. 3. Taking the patient's pulse and observing the patient for respirations would be an important step only after the emergency response system is notified 4. Obtaining an automated external defibrillator should occur only after the emergency response system is notified Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be associated with pregnancy? 1. Diastasis recti 2. Hyperreflexic bladder 3. Varicose veins 4. Carpal tunnel syndrome 2. Hyperreflexic bladder 1. Research with pregnant and postpartum women shows an incidence of diastasis recti between 27% and 62.5% (Kisner, p. 994). 2. Hyperreflexic, or spastic, bladder results from neurological lesions above the conus medullaris, such as a spinal cord injury (O'Sullivan). 3. Varicosities are aggravated in pregnancy by the increased uterine weight, venous stasis in the legs, and increased venous distensibility (Kisner, p. 997).