Clinical Pharmacy Practice Exam (Answered) 2023/2024, 300 Questions And Correct Answers

Clinical Pharmacy Practice Exam (Answered) 2023/2024, 300 Questions And Correct Answers 1. It refers to the responsible provision of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve a patient’s quality of life A. Professional-patient’s relationship B. Therapeutic drug monitoring C. Drug therapy assessment D. Pharmaceutical care E. Formal documentation 2. It involves measuring direct and indirect costs attributable to a specific disease A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis C. Cost-Minimization Analysis D. Cost-Utility Analysis E. Cost-Benefit Analysis 3. The method that allows for the identification, measurement, and comparison of the benefits and costs of a program or treatment alternative A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis C. Cost-Minimization Analysis D. Cost-Utility Analysis E. Cost-Benefit Analysis 4. The method that involves the determination of the least costly alternative when comparing two or more treatment alternatives A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis C. Cost-Minimization Analysis D. Cost-Utility Analysis E. Cost-Benefit Analysis 5. The method that integrates the patient preferences and health-related quality of life A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis C. Cost-Minimization Analysis D. Cost-Utility Analysis E. Cost-Benefit Analysis 6. A way of summarizing the health benefits and resources used by competing health care programs so that policy makers can choose among them A. Cost-of-Illness Evaluation B. Cost-Effectiveness Analysis C. Cost-Minimization Analysis D. Cost-Utility Analysis E. Cost-Benefit Analysis 7. It refers to the value assigned to duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions and social opportunities that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy A. Optimum health B. Quality of life C. Health outcomes D. Responsiveness E. Wellness of being 8. A study design in which neither the study subject nor the study staff is aware of which group or intervention the subjects has been assigned A. Randomized control trial B. Crossover study C. Cohort study D. Blinded study E. Cross-sectional study 9. A retrospective comparison of causal factors or exposures in a group of persons with disease and those of persons without the disease A. Randomized control trial B. Case control study C. Cohort study D. meta-analysis E. open-label trial 10. A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined groups in which a variable of interest is measured A. Cross-sectional study B. Case control study C. Cross over study D. Cohort study E. open label trial 11. A trial comparing treatments in which participants, on completion of one treatment, are switched to the other A. Cross-sectional study B. Cross over study C. meta-analysis D. open label trial E. cohort study 12. A study that examines the presence or absence of a disease and other variable in a defined population and the potential risk factor at a particular point in time or time-interval A. Cross-sectional study B. Cohort study C. case control study D. cross over study E. case series 13. Which of the following best describes the neonates? A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age D. those between 1 day and 1 month E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age 14. Which of the following best describes the infant? A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age D. those between 1 day and 1 month E. those born before 32 weeks of gestational age 15. Clinical manifestation of Gray Baby Syndrome include: I. Characteristic gray color III. Hypertension II. Abdominal distention IV. Progressive shock A. I only B. I and IV only C. I, II and III only D. I, II and IV only E. I and III only 16. Which of the following is associated with the use of thalidomide? I. Polyneuritis III. Limb deformities II. Mental retardation A. I only B. I, II and III only C. II and III only D. III only E. I and III only 17. Factors that increase the risk of drug-related problems in the elderly include: I. Polypharmacy III. Medication adherence II. Inappropriate prescribing IV. Multiple diseases A. I and II only B. I, II and III only C. II and IV only D. I, II and IV only E. I, II, III and IV 18. Potential difficulties that may occur while taking medication histories from the elderly include: I. Impaired hearing III. Multiple diseases and medication II. Mental acuity IV. Reliance on a caregiver for the history A. I, II and III only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II and IV only E. I, II, III and IV 19. Refers to the continual monitoring for unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of marketed drugs A. Pharmacoepidemiology B. Pharmacovigilance C. Pharmacoinformatics D. Pharmacogenetics E. Pharmacogenomics 20. Study of the use of and effect of drugs in a large number of people A. Pharmacoepidemiology B. Pharmacovigilance C. Pharmacoinformatics D. Pharmacogenetics E. Pharmacogenomics 21. Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy A. Adverse drug event B. Allergy C. Hypersensitivity D. Adverse drug reaction E. Idiosyncrasy 22. Which of the following is/are true regarding chest x-ray? I. Provides supplemental information to the physical examination and usually the first diagnostic test in a cardiac workup II. Provides details of internal cardiac structures III. Gives information about position and size of the heart and chambers and surrounding anatomy A. I only B. I, II and III C. I and II only D. I and III only E. II and III only 23. The manifestation of chromium deficiency include: I. Alopecia III. Red blood cell fragility II. Depigmentation of hair and skin IV. Glucose intolerance A. I and II only B. II and IV only C. I, II, III and VI D. III only E. IV only 24. The manifestation of zinc deficiency include: I. Poor wound healing III. Poor resistance to infection II. Poor growth A. I only B. II and III only C. I and IV only D. III only E. I, II and III only 25. Incompatibilities with fat emulsions cause majority of formulation problems in TPN. Which of the following affects lipid stability in TPN preparations? I. Nature of amino acid solution III. The amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution II. pH IV. Electrolyte content A. I, II and III only B. II, III and IV only C. I, II and IV only D. I and II only E. I and IV only 26. Ascorbic acid is the most rapidly oxidized vitamin. The rate of oxidation depends on: I. Electrolyte content III. Amount of dissolved oxygen in the solution II. Presence of trace minerals IV. pH A. IV only B. I and III only C. I, II and III only D. II, III and IV only E. II and IV only 27. Which of the following is the most rapidly reduced vitamin? A. Riboflavin B. Niacin C. Thiamine D. Cevitamic Acid E. Ascorbic Acid 28. Which of the following are associated with delusional hyponatremia? I. Administration of albumin III. Cirrhosis II. Congestive heart failure A. II only B. I and III only C. I and II only D. I only E. I, II and III 29. Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN)? I. End product of protein metabolism II. Produces by liver and kidney III. Filtered completely at glomerulus A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III E. I only 30. Which of the following accurately describes creatinine? I. Not absorbed and secreted by the kidney II. Filtered freely at the glomerulus III. Metabolized by the kidney A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only E. II and III only 31. Which of the following is/are true regarding aspartate aminotransferase (AST)? I. Also called serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase II. Abundant in heart and liver tissue III. Used to evaluate myocardial injury and case prognosis of liver disease resulting from hepatocellular injury A. I only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only E. III only 32. Which of the following is/are true regarding the comparison of ALT and AST enzyme? I. ALT elevations persist longer than those of AST. II. ALT is more liver specific. III. The liver contains 3.5 times more AST than ALT. A. I, II and III B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I and III only E. II only 33. Which of the following may result to a decrease in hematocrit? I. Hemolysis III. Sickle cell anemia II. Polycythemia vera A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II and III 34. According to the Seventh report of Joint National Committee (JNC 7), which of the following best describes a normal blood pressure? A. an SBP less than 130, and a DBP less than 85 B. an SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 and 89 C. an SBP less than 120, and a DBP less than 80 D. an SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 and 99 E. an SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100 35. According to JNC 7, which of the following best describes Stage I hypertension? A. an SBP less than 130, and a DBP less than 85 B. an SBP between 120 and 139, or a DBP between 80 and 89 C. an SBP less than 120, and a DBP less than 80 D. an SBP between 140 and 159, or a DBP between 90 and 99 E. an SBP equal to or greater than 160, or a DBP equal to or greater than 100 36. Which of the following are the objectives of evaluating patients with documented hypertension? I. to assess lifestyle and identify other cardiovascular risk factors or concomitant disorders that may affect prognosis and guide treatment II. to reveal identifiable causes of high blood pressure and allow patient self-medication III. to assess the presence or absence of target organ damage and cardiovascular diseases A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. I, II and III E. I and II only 37. Routine laboratory tests for hypertension recommended before initiating therapy include: I. Electrocardiogram III. Blood glucose and hematocrit II. Urinary albumin excretion IV. lipid profile A. I and IV only B. I and II only C. I, II and III only D. I, III and IV only E. I, II and IV only 38. Lifestyle modification for hypertension include: I. Diet rich in potassium and calcium II. Physical activity III. Moderation of alcohol consumption IV. Weight reduction of overweight and obese patients A. II, III and IV only B. I, III and IV only C. I, II and IV only D. I, II and III only E. I, II, III and IV 39. Which of the following diuretics should be used as initial therapy for most patients with hypertension, either alone or in combination? A. Thiazide diuretics B. Loop diuretics C. Potassium-sparing diuretics D. Osmotic diuretics E. a and b 40. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the potential unfavorable effects of antihypertensive drug choices? I. Thiazide diuretics should be used cautiously in patients with gout II. Beta-blockers should generally be avoided in individuals with asthma III. Aldosterone antagonist and potassium-sparing diuretics can cause hypokalemia A. I, II and III B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only E. I only 41. Factors that increase the chances of patients’ non-adherence to anti-hypertensive therapy include: I. Misunderstanding of condition or treatment II. Lack of patient involvement in the care plan III. Unexpected adverse effects of medications IV. Complexity of care A. I and II only B. III and IV only C. I, II and III only D. I, II and IV only E. I, II, III and IV 42. Which of the following is/are true regarding cholesterol? I. It is naturally occurring alcohol. II. It is the precursor molecule for the synthesis of bile acids and steroid hormones. III. It is used by the body to form cell membranes. A. II only B. II and III only C. I and II only D. III only E. I, II and III 43. General principles of the diet therapy intended to lower cholesterol levels include: I. Choose foods high in complex carbohydrates like starch and fiber. II. Replace monounsaturated fats with saturated fats and fish oils. III. Eat less high-fat, high-cholesterol foods. A. I only B. III only C. I, II and III D. II and III only E. I and III only 44. Which of the following is/are true regarding bile acid resins as part of the management of hypercholesterolemia? I. Resins are not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and thus lack systemic toxicity. II. They reduce total and LDL cholesterol in a dose-independent manner. III. They have a strong safety record established from years of use. A. I only B. III only C. I, II and III D. II and III only E. I and III only 45. Which of the following is/are the side effects of bile acid resins? I. Constipation III. Nausea II. Bloating and epigastric fullness IV. Flatulence A. I and II only B. II and IV only C. I and IV only D. II, III and IV only E. I, II, III and IV 46. Which of the following is/are true regarding niacin in the management of hypercholesterolemia? I. It inhibits the mobilization of free fatty acids from peripheral adipose tissue to the liver. II. It reduces the synthesis and secretion of VLDL particles by the liver. III. One of its side effects is vasoconstriction which leads to flushing itching and headache. A. I and II only B. III only C. I, II and III D. II and III only E. I and III only 47. Which of the following drugs has the most potent cholesterol lowering potential? A. Bile acid resins B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. ACE inhibitor E. Calcium Channel Blockers 48. During drug interactions with statins that result in higher blood levels of the statin or activate metabolite can increase the risk of myositis. Which of the following statins are most vulnerable to this interaction? A. Atorvastatin and Pravastatin