CNA_Exam_Prep_(Volume_2)_Completed_855

SECTION ONE 1. are people or organizations paying for health care services a. Payers b. Providers c. Facilities 2. LTC mean a. Length of care b. Length of cure c. Long term care 3. When an individual is expected to die from an illness, it is referred to as a a. Terminal illness b. Acute illness c. Chronic illness 4. Most conditions seen in long term care facilities are chronic a. True b. False 5. care is given in hospitals and ambulatory surgical centers. a. Acute care b. Home healthcare c. Adult daycare 6. Which of the following care can be given in a hospital or in a long-term care facility? a. Hospice care b. Home Health care c. Sub-acute care 7. After removing gloves, you are not required to wash your hands. a. True b. False 8. Which of the following care is usually for 24 hours? a. Out-patient care b. Skilled Care 9. Daily personal care tasks are called a. Active daily living b. Activities in daily living c. Activities of daily living (ADLs) 10. A thin tube inserted into the body that is used to drain fluids or inject fluid is a. Drainage b. Catheter c. Intravenous 11. Which one of the following is defined as the loss of mental abilities, such as thinking, remembering, reasoning, and communicating? a. Dementia b. Stroke c. Acute coronary syndrome 12. What does "p" mean in PASS while operating a fire extinguisher? a. Pin b. Pull c. Point 13. is a method, or way of doing something a. Procedure b. Policy c. Rules 14. Caucasian women make up a high percentage of residents in long term care facilities a. True b. False 15. Nursing assistants should accept money and gifts from residents a. True b. False 16. To cite means to a. Review a problem though a survey b. Find a problem through survey c. Create a problem through a survey 17. is an independent not-for-profit organization that evaluates and accredits healthcare organizations. a. OSHA b. Health Care Finance Administration (HCFA) c. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) 18. Medicare and Medicaid pay long-term care facilities a fixed amount for services a. True b. False 19. Tuberculosis is transmitted. a. Blood-borne b. Airborne c. contact 20. People who live in long term care facilities are usually called a. Clients b. Residents c. Patients SECTION TWO Match the following 1. CNA mentally active. 2. RN 3. LPN/LVN 4. MD/DO 5. PT E. 6. OT circulation, promote healing 7. SLP 8. RD 9. MSW 10. Activity Director A. Direct plan activities for residents to help them socialize and stay physically and B. Determines residents' needs and helps get them support services such as counseling. C. Creates diets for resident with specials needs D. Help with speech and swallowing problems E. Helps residents learn to compensate for disabilities F. Evaluates a person and develops a treatment plan to increase movement, improve G. Diagnose disease or disability and prescribe treatment H. Licensed professional who has completed one to two years of education I. Licensed professional who has completed two to four years of education J. Performs delegated tasks such as taking vital signs, provides routine personal care, such as bathing residents and helping with toileting. 11. Professionalism means a. How you behave when you are on the job b. Having to do with work or a job c. Being late to work l2. Nursing assistants must be conscientious about documenting observations and procedures a. True b. False 13. is the ability to understand what is proper and appropriate when dealing with others a. Sympathy b. Tact c. Empathy Match the following 14. Compassionate 15. Empathy condition 16. Sympathy 17. Conscientious 18. Dependable 19. Respectful 20. Unprejudiced 21. Tolerant A. Put aside your opinions and see each resident as an individual who needs your care B. Give each resident the same quality care regardless of age, gender, race, ethnicity or C. Valuing other individuality D. Must make and keep commitments E. Always try to do their best F. Sharing in the feelings and difficulties of others G. Entering into feeling of others H. Being caring concerned, considerate, empathetic and Understanding 22. Which of the following is not included in personal grooming habits a. Dressing neatly in a uniform that is washed and ironed b. Keep fingernails short, smooth and clean c. Wearing little or no makeup d. None of the above 23. The chain of command describes the line of authority and helps ensure that the resident receive proper care a. True b. False 24. defines the things you are allowed to do and how to do them correctly. a. Scope of practice b. Unprejudiced c. Compassionate d. Tolerant Match the following 25. Diagnosis 26. Planning 27. Implementation 28. Evaluation 29. Plan ahead 30. Prioritize 1. The knowledge of right and wrong is A. A careful examination to see if the goals are being met B. Putting the care plan into action C. Setting goals and creating a care plan D. Identifying the health problems after looking at all the resident's needs E. Identifying the most important things to get done F. Best way to help manage your time better SECTION THREE a. Laws b. Rules c. Ethics 2. are usually based on ethics a. Laws b. Rules c. Abuse 3. Behaving ethically and following the law applies to all healthcare providers. a. True b. False 4. set minimum standards for nursing assistant training a. OSHA b. OBRA c. MDS 5. The is a detailed form with guidelines for assessing residents a. OBRA b. MDS c. OSHA 6. Residents' rights include which of the following a. The right to make independent choices b. The right to participate in their own care c. The right to privacy and confidentiality d. All of the above 7. is the process by which a person, with the help of a doctor makes decisions about his or her healthcare after sufficient information. a. Living will b. Informed consent c. Power of attorney 8. Which of the following is a national non-profit organization founded in L975 to protect the rights, safety and dignity of long-term care residents a. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) b. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization(JCAHO) c. The National Citizens' Coalition for Nursing Home Reform (NCCNHR) Match the following 9. Neglect 10. Active Neglect 11. Passive Neglect 12. Negligence 13. Malpractice 14. Abuse environment 15. Involuntary Seclusion 16. Sexual Harassment A. another tool that help medical providers honor wishes about care B. Medical procedures to restart the heart and breathing C. A signed dated and witness paper D. Takes effect while the person is still living E. Legal documents that allow people to choose what medical care they wish to have... F. Any unwelcome sexual advance behavior that creates an offensive working G. Separating a person from others against the persons will H. Purposely causing Physical, mental or emotional pain or injury to someone 17. Advanced directives 18. Living will injury 19. Durable power of attorney 20. Do-not-resuscitate (DNR) I. Occurs when a person is injured due to professional misconduct through negligence J. The failure to act to provide the proper care for a resident that result in unintended K. Unintentionally harming a person physically or by failing to provide care L. Purposely harming a person by failing to provide needed care. 21. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) M. Harming a person physically or emotionally by failing to provide needed care 22. are people who are legally required to report suspected or observed abuse or neglect a. Mandatory reporters b. News reported c. Mandated reporters 23. Which of the following is assigned by law as the legal advocate for residents a. Protected health information (PHl) b. Confidentiality c. Ombudsman 24. HIPAA means to a. Share private information with family members b. Keep patient information private c. Gives information to the public 25. Only people who give care or process records, should have access to protected health information 1. True 2. False SECTION FOUR 1. is the process of exchanging information with others a. Compassionate b. Sympathy c. Communication 2. The communication process consists of which of the following a. Sender, receiver and feedback b. Signs, symbols and drawings c. Drawings, receiver, sender 3. Verbal communication involves the use of words or sounds, spoken or written a. True b. False 4. Body language often speaks as words a. True b. False 5. is the way we communicate without using words a. Culture b. Nonverbal communication c. Verbal communication 6. A is a system of learned behaviors, practiced by a group of people a. Cultural diversity b. Culture c. Bias 7. Positive responses to cultural diversity include which of the following a. Acceptance and knowledge b. Bias and knowledge c. None of these 8. Which of the following are barriers to communication a. Resident is difficult to understand b. Advice is given c. Resident cannot hear you d. All of the above 9. All of the following are ways to make communication accurate except a. Giving advice b. Let some pauses happen c. Ask for more 10. When helping residents, do not talk to other staff a. True b. False 11. A is something that is definitely true a. Opinion b. Report c. Fact 12. An is something that is may not be true a. Opinion b. Report c. Fact 13. Objective information is based on what you a. See b. Hear c. Touch or smell d. All of the above 14. information is something you cannot or did not observe a. Objective b. Subjective c. Rejective l5. Incontinence is a. Inability to control moving b. Inability to control the bladder or bowels c. Inability to control breathing 16. A resident's skin is pale or blue. This is called a. Edema b. Syncope c. Cyanotic 17. Derma means a. Head b. Neck c. Skin 18. The suffix "itis" means a. Incontinence b. Incision c. Complication d. Inflammation 19. is an accident or unexpected event during the course of care a. Incident b. Impairment c. Liability Match the following 20. Hemiplegia -- A. medical term for stroke 21. Hemiparesis -- B. difficulty swallowing 22. Expressive aphasia -- C. Inability to speak clearly 23. Receptive -- D. inability to speak clearly 24. Dysphasia -- E. weakness on one side of the body 25. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) -- F. Paralysis on one side the body SECTION FIVE 1. is term for measures practiced in healthcare facilities to prevent and control the spread of disease 1. Medical asepsis 2. Microbes 3. Infection control 2. A is a living thing or organism that is so small that it can be seen only through a microscope a. Virus b. Microorganism c. Infection 3. What is another name for microorganism a. Microbe b. Amoeba c. Bacteria 4. Infection occur when harmful microorganisms called pathogens invade the body and multiply a. True b. False c. None of the above 5. Which of the following infection is in the blood stream and is spread throughout the body a. Healthcare-associated infection b. Localized infection c. Systemic infection 6. A is confined to a specific location in the body and has local symptoms a. Healthcare-associated infection b. Localized infection c. Systemic infection 7. are infections that patients acquire within healthcare settings that result from treatment for other conditions a. Healthcare-associated infection b. Localized infection c. Systemic infection 8. is the process of removing pathogens or the state of being free of pathogens a. Medical asepsis b. Surgical asepsis c. None of the above 9. What is the name given to the state of being free of all microorganisms not just pathogens a. Medical asepsis b. Surgical asepsis c. None of the above 10. The chain of infection is a. Is an uninfected person who could get sick b. Is a way of describing how disease is transmitted from one living being to another c. None of the above 11. Causative agents include which of the following a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Fungi and protozoa d. All of the above 12. Examples of reservoirs include the a. Mouth b. Clothes c. Lungs, blood and the large intestine 13. The is anybody opening on an infected person that allows pathogens to leave such as the nose, mouth, eyes or a cut in the skin a. Portal of entry b. Portal of exit c. None of the above 14. Which of the following describes how the pathogen travels from one person to the next person a. Mode of transmission b. Susceptible host c. None of the above 15. is the condition that results from inadequate fluid in the body a. Infection b. Diarrhea c. Malnutrition d. Dehydration l6. Centers for Disease Control and prevention (CDC) is a governmental agency under the department of health and human services a. True b. False c. None of the above 17. Hand antisepsis refers to a. Hand-washing with either plain or antiseptic soap and water and using alcohol-based hand rubs b. Washing hands with water and soap or other detergents that contain an antiseptic agent c. None of the above 18. A agent destroys or resists pathogen a. Microbes b. Microbial c. Antimicrobial 19. Personal protective equipment includes a. Gloves, gown b. Masks, goggles and face shields c. All of the above 20. is a process that kills pathogens but not all microorganisms a. Disinfection b. Sterilization c. Disposal 21. Which of the following are symptoms of hepatitis a. Chest pain b. Trouble breathing c. Mucus d. None of the above 22. Tuberculosis usually infects the a. Brain b. Lungs c. Heart 23. MRSA stands for a. Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus b. Multidrug-resistant c. None of the above 24. stands for vancomycin-resistant enterococcus a. HIV b. TB c. VRE 25. Which of the following is a spore forming bacteria which can be a part of the normal flora a. Enterococci b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Clostridium difficile SECTION SIX 1. Which of the following includes our 5 senses a. Sight and hearing b. Touch and smell c. Taste d. All of the above 2. is the loss of ability to move all or part of the body a. Fracture b. Paralysis c. Sprain 3. It is very important to try to prevent accidents before they occur a. True b. False 4. A fracture is a. A broken bone b. A bleeding bone c. A severed bone 5. What fracture cause the greatest number of deaths and can lead to severe health problems a. Shoulder b. Leg c. Hip 6. The following factors increases the risk for falls, except. a. Poor lighting b. Upholstery c. Slippery or wet floor d. Throw rugs 7. means confusion about person, place or time a. orientation b. disorientation c. identification 8. Never lock a wheel chair before transferring a resident into or out of it a. True b. False 9. What can be caused by dry heat ? a. Burns b. Cuts c. Scalds 10. Scalds are burns a. True b. False 11. can occur when eating, drinking or swallowing medication a. Poisoning b. Gasping c. Slippery d. Choking 12. Residents must be sitting up straight when eating whether in a bed or a chair a. True b. False 13. An is an injury that rubs off the surface of the skin a. Abrasion b. Cut c. Scratch 14. means the process of burning a. Flammable b. Smoking c. Combustion 15. Which of the following requires that all hazardous chemicals must have a material safety data sheet ? a. MRSA b. HIV c. OSHA 16. Which of the following are examples of physical restraints a. Mitt restraints b. Belt restraints c. Side rails d. All of the above 17. is death from a lack of air or oxygen a. Suffocation b. Atrophy c. Syncope 18. Understanding some basic principles of body mechanisms will help keep you and residents safe a. True b. False 19. is the way the parts of the body with together whenever you move a. Posture b. Center of gravity c. Body mechanics 20. Always try to catch a falling resident a. True b. False 21. Where does the center of gravity in your body point? a. Where the most weight is concentrated b. Where the least weight is concentrated c. Where no weight is concentrated 22. The wider your support the more stable you are a. True b. False 23. A moves an object by resting on a base of support a. Alignment b. Lever c. Counter of gravity 24. When you stand your weight is centered in your pelvis a. True b. False 25. Do not twist while you are moving an object a. True b. False SECTION SEVEN 1. The first thing to do when you recognize a medical emergency is a. Turn on the AED b. Do nothing c. Assess the situation d. Start CPR 2. Which of the following means being mentally alert and having awareness of surroundings, sensations and thoughts? a. Conscious b. Breathing c. Unconscious d. None of the above 3. Checking a person for injury include all of the following except a. Medical alert tags b. Applying restraints c. Severe bleeding d. Changes in consciousness 4. is an emergency care given immediately to an injured person a. CPR b. Abdominal thrust c. BLS d. First aid 5. To open the airway you should use the a. Head tilt-chin lift b. Chin lift head tilt c. Both a and b d. None of the above 6. When giving CPR the correct rate of chest compressions to breaths are a. 15 chest compressions to l rescue breaths b. 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths c. 20 chest compressions to 1 rescue breaths d. 35 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths 7. AED stands for a. Automatic external defibrillator b. Auto external defibrillator c. Automated externally defibrillator d. Automated external defibrillator 8. Adequate breathing should be detected no longer than seconds a. 15 b. 8.5 c. 10 d. 20 9. How could you tell when someone is choking a. He/she would put their hands to their throat and cough b. He/she would ask you to hit them on the back c. He/she would ask for a glass of water d. None of the above 10. The method of attempting to remove an object from the airway of someone who is choking is called a. Abdominal slaps b. Abdominal thrusts c. Depressions d. Compressions 11. What occurs when organs and tissues in the body do not receive an adequate blood supply? a. Choking b. Dyspnea c. Syncope d. Shock 12. Dyspnea means a. Difficulty breathing b. Difficulty smelling c. Painful breathing d. Both a and c 13. All of the following are signs and symptoms of Ml except a. Nausea and vomiting b. Perspiration c. Blurred vision d. Cold and clammy skin 14. What is the medical term used for heart attack? a. Myocardial Ischemia b. Myocardial infarction (Ml) c. Myocardium infarction d. None of the above 15. What should be done to control bleeding? a. With gloves on and clean, thick sterile pad press down hard directly on the bleeding wound until help arrive b. Press down hard directly on the bleeding wound with bare hands until help arrive c. Maintain normal body temperature d. All of the above 16. Which of the following is used to treat accidental poisoning a. Epsom salts b. Ipecac syrup c. Activated charcoal d. All of the above 17. degree burns involves all three layers of the skin a. First degree b. Second degree c. Third degree d. Total degree 18. What is the medical term for fainting a. BLS b. Syncope c. Myocardial ischemia d. Myocardial infarction 19. Insulin reaction is also called a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyperglycemia d. Hyperkalemia 20. is caused by having too little insulin a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)/hyperglycemia d. None of the above 21. Which of the following is not a true statement about seizures a. Do not leave a person alone during a seizure b. Help the person get up slowly while having a seizure c. Do not give liquid or food d. Do not try to restrain the person 22. is a warning sign of a CVA a. Myocardial ischemia b. Syncope c. Emesis d. Epilepsy 23. Transient ischemic attack (TlA) is also known as a. Mini stroke b. Semi stroke c. Bi-lateral stroke d. Tri lateral stroke 24. The act of ejecting stomach contents through the mouth is a. Sputum b. Mucus c. Vomiting or emesis d. None of the above 25. Disasters can include a. Fire, flood b. Earthquake, hurricane c. Severe weather d. All of the above SECTION EIGHT 1. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs a. Self-esteem, belongingness, self-actualization b. Safety, physical needs, love and belongingness, security c. Self-actualization, self-esteem, belongingness and security d. Physical need, safety and security, love and belongingness, self-esteem and self-actualization 2. Considering a whole system such as a whole person rather than dividing the system up into parts a. Holistic b. Mental c. Independence d. None of the above 3. Which of the following is not a basic human physical need a. Safety b. Food and water c. Getting an ipad d. Comfort 4. A loss of independence can cause which of the following a. Depression b. Poor self- image c. Feelings of being useless d. All of the above 5. means to touch or rub sexual organs in order to give oneself or another person sexual pleasure a. Mensuration b. Masturbation c. Menstruation d. Menopause 6. A person who has a desire for persons of the same sex is called a a. Transsexual b. Bisexual c. Heterosexual d. Gay 7. A woman whose sexual orientation is to women a. Lesbian b. Gay c. Transsexual d. Bisexual 8. Spirituality means a. Relating to the spirit or soul b. Relating to the mind c. Relating to the way we conduct our selves d. None of the above Fill in the blank Atheists Buddhism Christianity Islam Judaism Islam 9. Believe that life is filled with suffering that caused by desire 10. Believe Jesus Christ was the son of God and that he died so their sins would be forgiven 11. Believe in reincarnation, karma and do not eat beef 12. Pray five times a day facing Mecca, the holy city for their religion 13. People who claim that there is no God 14. Do not do work from Friday sundown to Saturday sundown 15. Fasting means a. Eating vegan food b. Eating soul food c. Not eating food or eating very little food d. None of the above 16. do not eat any animals or animal products such as eggs or dairy products. a. Vegetarian b. Vegans c. Ovo vegetarians d. Lacto vegetarians 17. A highly contagious viral disease that strikes nearly all children is a. Leukemia b. SIDS c. Ageism d. Chicken pox 18. is a maltreatment include not providing adequate food, clothing or support a. Child neglect b. Trauma c. Premature d. Disability 19. School-age children age from a. 12 to 18 b. 3 to 6 c. 6 to 12 d. 18 to 40 20. is a form of cancer a. Chicken pox b. Bulimia c. Leukemia d. SIDS 21. What is the study of health, wellness and disease later in life a. Gerontology b. Geriatrics c. Ageism d. Cognitive 22. The study of the aging process in people from mid-life through old age is called a. Scientology b. Geriatrics c. Zoology d. Gerontology 23. Prejudice towards stereotyping of against older persons or the elderly is called a. Ageism b. Anorexia c. Old age d. Gigantism 24. refer to disabilities that are at birth or emerge during child-hood a. Developmental disabilities b. Down syndrome c. Spina bifida d. Cerebral palsy 25. Spina bifida literally means a. Crack spine b. Rip spine c. Split spine d. Age spine SECTION NINE 1. What is the name for the condition in which all of the body's systems are working at their best a. Homeostasis b. Hormones c. Glands d. Digestion 2. The body is divided into systems. a. 7 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 3. Body systems are made up of a. Cells b. Glands c. Tissues d. Organs 4. What are the building block of our bodies a. Organs b. Cells c. Tissues d. Glands 5. Posterior or dorsal means a. Away from the body b. The back of the body or body part c. The front of the body or body part d. Closer to the torso 6. The largest organ and system in the body is the a. Skin b. Endocrine c. Reproductive d. Musculoskeletal 7. Normal changes of aging include which of the following a. Skin is less elastic b. Nails are harder and more brittle c. Hair thins and may turn gray d. All of the above 8. Which of the following is not a part of the skin a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Epicardium d. Subcutaneous 9. How many bones are there in the human body? a. 206 b. 210 c. 220 d. 212 10. The point at where two bones meet is called a a. Tissue b. Contract c. Glands d. Joint 11. provide movement of body parts to maintain posture and to produce heat a. Joint b. Muscles c. Cells d. Organs 12. Which of the following is not included in normal changes of aging a. Bone loss density b. Muscles weaken and lose tone c. Height is gradually lost d. Grow 6 inches taller 13. Which one of the following is the two main parts of the nervous system a. Central nervous system (CNS) b. Peripheral nervous system c. A and B d. None of the above 14. The three main sections of the brain are a. Cerebrum b. Brainstem c. Cerebellum d. All of the above 15. The outer part of the eye is called a. Sclera b. Retina c. Iris d. Cornea 16. Ear wax and hair in the ear protect the ear from a. Light b. Foreign objects c. Water d. None of the above 17. The heart is an a. Bone b. Organ c. Muscle d. Artery 18. The contracting phase of the heart is the a. Expiration b. Diastole c. Systole d. Inspiration 19. The resting phase of the heart is the a. Diastole b. Respiration c. Inspiration d. Expiration 20. Normal changes of aging include which of the following a. Voice weakens b. Lung capacity decreases c. Lung strength decreases d. All of the above 21. is the process of expelling solid wastes made up of the waste products of food that are not absorbed into cells a. Digestion b. Ingestion c. Absorption d. Elimination 22. Fecal/anal incontinence is the a. Inability to control the bowels b. Inability to control urine c. Inability to control drooling d. Inability to control bleeding 23. The reproductive system allows human beings to a. Multiply b. Separate c. Reproduce d. None of the above 24. protects against a particular disease that is invading the body at a given time a. Acquired immunity b. Specific immunity c. Nonspecific immunity d. Invading immunity 25. What is the name of the clear yellowish fluid that carries disease-fighting cells called lymphocytes a. Sperm b. Lymph c. Gonads d. None of the above SECTION TEN 1. means helping residents into positions that will be comfortable and healthy for them a. Positioning b. Homeostasis c. Holistic 2. In the position the resident lies flat on his back a. Lateral b. Prone c. Supine 3. A person in the position is lying on his or her back a. Prone b. Lateral c. Supine 4. A person lying in the position is lying on his or her stomach a. Prone b. Sims c. Fowlers 5. A person lying in the position is partially reclined a. Prone b. Sims c. Fowlers 6. A draw sheet is an extra sheet placed on top of the bottom sheet a. True b. False 7. is rubbing or friction that results from the skin moving one way and the bone underneath it remaining fixed or moving in the opposite direction a. Shearing b. Bearing c. Shaving 8. Moving a resident as a unit, without disturbing alignment of the body is a. Block rolling b. Wood rolling c. Log rolling 9. To means to sit up with the feet over the side of the bed for a moment to regain a. Balance b. Swing c. Dangle d. Shake 10. The science of designing equipment and work tasks to suit the workers abilities a. Transfer board b. Ergonomics c. Gait belt 11. A is a safety device used to transfer residents who are weak, unsteady or uncoordinated a. Transfer belt b. Gait belt c. Safety belt 12. Where should the gait belt be placed? a. Around both legs of the resident b. Around the waist of resident over clothing c. On the wheel chair 13. What is the name of the equipment that can help transfer residents? a. Back belt b. holding belt c. Gait belt 14. A stretcher is another word for a. Cane b. Gurney c. Crutch 15. Which of the following equipment prevents wear and tear on your body a. Stretcher b. Mechanical or hydraulic lift c. Sling 16. Which of the following statements are not true about a mechanical lift? a. You and the resident would not get hurt if you use the lift improperly b. You must be trained on the specific lift you will be using c. Lifts help prevent injury to you and the resident 17. Which of the following statements are true about transferring a resident onto and off a toilet a. Position wheelchair at a right angle to toilet b. Ask resident to push against the arm rests of the wheelchair and stand c. All of the above 18. What is another word for walking? a. Ambulation b. Pacing c. Moving 19. A resident who is ambulatory is a. One who can move in bed b. One who can get out of bed and walk c. None of the above 20. The purpose of a cane is to a. Help with balance b. Help visually impaired resident c. None of the above 21. The cane is a straight cane with a curved handle at the top a. C cane b. Quad cane c. Functional grip cane 22. This type of cane has a grip handle rather than a curved handle a. C cane b. Quad cane c. Functional grip cane 23. Which cane is designed to bear more weight than the other canes a. C cane b. Quad cane c. Functional grip cane 24. What equipment can be used when the resident can bear some weight on the legs a. Walker b. Cane c. Crutches 25. Residents who can bear no weight or limited weight on the leg use a. Walker b. Cane c. Crutches SECTION ELEVEN Fill in the blanks Wants, them time, condition consciousness confused introduce position Friendly formal resident arrives bed tidy admission kit welcome, wanted tour valuables 1. Prepare the room before the resident 2. Make sure the is made and the room is 3. A is usually in the patient room before he/she is admitted 4. When a new resident arrives at the facility note the and 5. Observe the new resident for level of and if he/she seems 6. yourself and state your 7. Smile and be 8. Always call the person by his/her name until they tell you what they want to be call 9. Never rush the new 10. Make sure the new resident feel and 11. Offer to take the resident on a 12. Ask the new resident if he/she brought any 13. Place personal items where the resident True and False 14. Providing fresh water is something you should do every time you leave a resident's room 15. Report any changes in resident's weight to the nurse 16. Residents do not have the right to receive advance notice of any room or roommate change 17. Sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure 18. Alcohol wipes cannot be used for infection and minor wound care l9. Otoscope is an instrument used to examine the eye 20. The dorsal recumbent position is used to examine the chest, breasts and abdomen 21. Lithotomy position is used to examine the rectum 22. To determine height on a standing scale gently lower the measuring rod until it rests flat on the resident's head 23. Admission kit will contain a urine specimen cup, personal care items, drinking glass, tooth paste and soap 24. Resident should not be told of their rights until after admission 25. The room should be prepare when the new resident arrives SECTION TWELVE True and false 1. Illness and disability cause great stress 2. Common noises in facilities can upset and irritate residents 3. Caffeinated drinks such as coffee or some teas do not prevent sleep, fatigue and irritability 4. A resident room is not his/her home and should not be treated with respect 5. Providing a clean, safe and orderly environment is an essential part of your job 6. Normally Beds are kept at their highest horizontal position 7. The water pitcher and cup are kept in the bedside stand drawer 8. It is important to always place the call light within the resident's reach 9. Curtains and screens block sounds from the other rooms 10. You do not have to wear gloves when rinsing bedpans and urinals 11. Sleep is a natural period of rest for the mind and body 12. The circadian rhythm is 24 hour day night cycle 13. Insomnia is the lack of ability to fall asleep or stay asleep 14. Sheets that are damp, wrinkled or bunched up under a resident is not uncomfortable 15. Hold soiled linen close to your body and place it in the proper container immediately 16. An occupied bed is a bed made while the resident is not in it 17. It is easier to make a bed when the resident is in it 18. Hospital corners help keep the flat sheet smooth under the resident 19. A close bed is a bed completely made with the bedspread and blankets in place 20. A surgical bed is made to accept residents who are returning to bed on stretchers or gurney 21. Good lighting is not important to residents 22. Always knock and wait to receive permission before entering 23. If resident seem sad, anxious, or fearful just ignore them 24. You do not have to keep a resident room neat and clean 25. An emesis basin is a kidney-shaped basin often used when giving mouth care SECTION THIRTEEN 1. is the term used to describe practices to keep our bodies clean and healthy a. Hygiene b. Grooming c. ADL d. None of the above 2. What is referred to as practices like caring for fingernails and hair a. Hygiene b. Grooming c. ADL d. None of the above 3. Which of the following is not included in a.m. care a. Offering a bedpan b. Giving a back rub c. Helping the resident to wash face and hands d. Assisting with mouth care before breakfast 4. are areas of the body that bear much of its weight a. Pressure sores b. Bony prominences c. Pressure points d. None of the above 5. The areas of the body where the bone lies close to the skin is a. Pressure sore b. Pressure points c. Hygiene d. Bony prominences 6. A pressure sore is also called a a. Decubitus ulcer b. Pressure points c. Broken skin d. None of the above 7. How many stages of pressure sores exists? a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. 5 8. In what stage is the full skin loss with major destruction a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 4 d. Stage 3 9. In what stage is the skin intact but there is redness that is not relieved within 15 to 30 minutes? a. Stage 4 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 1 10. A skin may be placed under the resident to absorb moisture a. Goat, pig b. Cow, dog c. Sheep, chamois d. None of the above 11. heel protectors help keep feet properly aligned and prevent pressure sores a. Stuffed b. Padded c. Packed d. Shield 12. There are many types of ointments, creams and lotions that are used to treat, soften and protect the skin a. True b. False c. Maybe d. None of the above 13. is a weakness of muscles in the feet and ankles that causes difficulty with the ability to flex the ankles and walk normally a. Foot pop b. Foot roll c. Foot curl d. Foot drop 14. What help prevent foot drop? a. Footboards b. Foot stools c. Foot roll d. Foot curls 15. Hand rolls does not keep fingers from curling too tightly a. True b. False 16. A is a device such as a splint or brace that helps support and align a limb and improve its function a. Splint device b. Brace device c. Orthotic device d. Pillow device 17. The perineum is the a. Vocal and skin area b. Mucus and genital area c. Genital and back area d. Genital and anal area 18. A is a substance added to another substance changing its effect a. Additive b. Subtractive c. Partial d. None of the above 19. Common sites for pressure sores are a. Thigh b. Shoulder c. Chest, nose and hands d. None of the above 20. The is the area from the pubis to the upper thighs a. Buttock b. Groin c. Abdomen d. Perineal 21. A is a sturdy chair designed to be placed in a bathtub or shower a. Geri chair b. Wheel chair c. Shower chair d. None of the above 22. Pediculosis is an a. Infestation of mice b. Infestation of pest c. Infestation of bugs d. Infestation of lice 23. is an excessive shedding of dead skin cells from the scalp a. Scab b. Dandruff c. Scratch d. Crack 24. The medical term for bad breath is a. Edentulous b. Aspiration c. Halitosis d. Pediculosis 25. Edentulous means a. Having no teeth b. Having no sweat c. Having no pain d. Having bad breath SECTION FOURTEEN 1. Which of the following is the normal temperature range for the oral method a. 96.6 - 98.6 degrees F b. 97.9 - 100.6 degrees F c. 97.6 - 99.6 degrees F d. 95.6 - 98.9 degrees F 2. Which of the following is the normal temperature range for the rectal method a. 98.6 - 100.6 degrees F b. 96.7 - 98.6 degrees F c. 95.5 - 98.9 degrees F d. 98.6 - 99.9 degrees F 3. Which of the following is another word for mouth a. Axillary b. Rectal c. Tympanic d. Oral 4. Which of the following is another word for ear a. Axillary b. Rectal c. Tympanic d. Oral 5. Oral thermometers are usually a. Yellow b. Green or blue c. Black d. Lavender 6. Rectal thermometers are usually in color a. Yellow b. Green c. Blue d. Red 7. Which temperature is considered to be the most accurate? a. Rectal b. Oral c. Tympanic d. Axillary 8. Which temperature is considered to be the least accurate? a. Oral b. Tympanic c. Axillary d. Rectal 9. Why are mercury free thermometers safer than the mercury thermometers? a. They are more expensive than mercury thermometers b. They do not contain dangerous substance like mercury c. They are easier to read than mercury thermometers d. They are easier to hold 10. Where is the most common site for monitoring the pulse located a. In between the elbow and the shoulder b. In between the thigh and the leg c. On the feet d. On the inside of the wrist 11. Where is the brachial pulse located a. In between the elbow and the shoulder b. On the side of the neck c. On the feet d. On the left side of the chest 12. Which of the following is not a common pulse site? a. Radial b. Apical c. Femoral d. All of the above 13. A is an instrument designed to listen to sounds within the body a. Sphygmomanometer b. Stethoscope c. Pen d. Thermometer 14. What is the process of breathing air into the lungs? a. Perspiration b. Dyspnea c. Respiration d. Expiring l5. Count the heart beat for full minute to measure apical pulse a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4 16. The normal respiration rate for adults ranges from a. 40 to 60 b. 12 to 16 c. 15 to 30 d. 12 to 20 17. Infants normally breathe at a rate of to cycles per minute a. 24 to 30 b. 15 to 35 c. 30 to 40 d. 12 to 16 True and false 18. Heat relieves pain and muscular tension 19. Hot application can stop bleeding 20. Ice packs is considered to be a dry applicator 21. Disposable heat compresses are used more than once and then discarded 22. Sitz baths clean perineal wounds and reduce inflammation and pain 23. Sterile dressing do not cover open or drain wounds 24. IV stands for intravenous or into a vein 25. A nasal cannula is a piece of metal tubing that fits around the face SECTION FIFTEEN 1. is how the body uses food to maintain health a. Carbohydrates b. Nutrition c. Fats d. Protein 2. What is something found in food that provides energy, promote good health and helps regulate metabolism a. Oil b. Fat c. Vegetables d. Nutrient 3. Promotes growth a. Protein b. Grains c. Minerals d. Fruits 4. Carbohydrates are basically needed for a. growth b. strength c. None of the above 5. Fats help the body store a. Vegetables b. Fruits c. Energy d. Milk 6. Vitamins , , and are fat-soluble vitamins a. A, D, E and K b. B, C and D c. K, B, and E d. None of the above 7. Which of the following is not an example of a mineral a. Zinc, iron b. Calcium c. Magnesium d. Vitamin b 8. One- half to two-thirds of our body weight is a. Fat b. Water c. Food d. Blood 9. Calcium is used for building and . a. Hair and skin b. Fingers and toes c. Bones and teeth d. Nose and mouth 10. are the major source of monounsaturated fats (MUFA) a. Oils b. Milk c. Beans d. Meat True or false 11. Physical activity and nutrition work together for better health 12. Many elderly people take a variety of medications which can affect the way food smells and tastes 13. Thickened liquid include water and juice 14. Nasogastric tube are inserted in through the stomach l5. Nursing assistants are responsible for inserting and discontinuing tubes 16. Food likes and dislikes are influenced by what you eat as a child 17. The dietary department also makes diet cards Match the following 18. Low sodium diet 19. Dysphagia 20. Vegetarians 21. High-potassium diets 22. NPO 23. Low-protein diet 24. Liquid diet 25. High-residue diet A. Nothing by mouth B. Restricted protein C. clear juices, broth, gelatin and popsicles D. Helps with constipation E. Do not eat fish or poultry F. No salt added G. Get food high in potassium (Banana, grapefruit) H. Difficulty swallowing SECTION SIXTEEN 1. Urination is also known as a. Number 1 b. Defaecation c. Micturition or voiding d. None of the above 2. Urine is made up of a. Fruits and vegetables b. Water and dye c. Mucus and water d. Water and waste products 3. Adults should produce about to mL of urine per day a. 2000 to 4000 b. 1200 to 1500 c. 400 to 600 d. 60 to 100 4. Urine is normally in color a. Pale yellow to amber b. Pale pink to red c. Pale yellow to orange d. Green to blue 5. A healthy person needs to take in from of fluid each day a. 30 to 60 ounces b. 20 to 40 ounces c. 50 to 70 ounces d. 64 to 96 ounces 6. is a bedpan that is flatter than the regular bedpan a. Woven pan b. Twisted pan c. Fracture pan d. Standard pan 7. Urinary tract infection (UTl) causes a. Inflammation of the kidney and nephron b. Inflammation of the bladder and ureters c. Inflammation of the perineal area d. None of the above 8. Another name for kidney stones is a. Calculi b. Calculus c. Catheter d. Cystitis 9. Which of the following is not a symptom of calculi? a. Groin pain b. Chills, fever c. Sore throat d. Flank or back pain 10. Inflammation of the kidneys is a. Cystitis b. Nephritis c. Edema d. None of the above 11. is a condition in which a blockage of arteries in the kidneys causes high blood pressure a. Ranovascular hypertension b. Rinovascular hypertension c. Renovascular hypotension d. Renovascular hypertension True OR False l2. Excessive salt in the diet can also cause damage to the kidney 13. A catheter is a thick tube inserted in the body l4. Nursing assistant insert, remove and irrigate catheter 15. Straight catheter remains inside the body 16. Indwelling catheter is removed immediately after urine is drained 17. Kidney dialysis is an artificial means of removing the body's waste products 18. A specimen is a sample that is used for analysis in order to try make a diagnosis l9. A clean catch specimen is also called mid-stream because the first and last is not included 20. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14 2l. Normal pH of urine range from 8.4 - 9.0 22. Kidney stones are produced when the body burns fat for fuel 23. Illness and diseases can cause blood to appear in the urine 24. Always show anger and frustration toward resident who are incontinent 25. Never report changes in skin color SECTION SEVENTEEN True and false 1. Defecation or bowel elimination is the passing of feces from the large intestine out of the body through the anus 2. Feces is also called stool or bowel movement 3. Stool is normally black, hard and formed in a tubular shape 4. Certain food can change the color of stool 5. Liquid stool should be reported to the nurse 6. As a person ages peristalsis increase 7. Raw fruits and vegetables are high in fiber which helps with bowel movement 8. Constipation is the ability to eliminate urine Fill in the blank BRAT Colitis Malabsorption Harris flush Weakening Peptic Ulcers 120 ml Blood Worms and amoebas Occult Colon cancer Enema Fecal impaction Hemorrhoids Diarrhea Flatus or gas lactose intolerance 9. A specific amount of water with or without an additive that is introduced into the colon to eliminate stool is 10. A is a hard stool that is stuck in the rectum and cannot be expelled 11. are enlarged veins in the rectum that may also be visible outside the anus 12. Frequent elimination of liquid or semi-liquid feces is called 13. Flatulence is also called or 14. The inability to digest lactose a type of sugar found in milk and other dairy products is called 15. A diet of bananas, rice, applies and tea/ toast is also called diet 16. Irritable bowel movement syndrome which is a chronic form of stomach upset that gets worse from stress is 17. means that the body cannot absorb or digest a particular nutrient properly 18. A return-flow enema also called a may be ordered to expel the flatus l9. Heartburn is the result of a of the sphincter muscle which joins the esophagus and the stomach 20. are raw sores in the stomach or the small intestine 21. Colorectal cancer also known as is cancer of the gastrointestinal tact 22. A commercially-prepared enema usually has solution and may have additives 23. Stool specimens are collected so that the stool can be tested for 24. and can be detected with an ova and parasites test 25. means something that is hidden or difficult to see or observe SECTION EIGHTEEN Fill in the blank Vaginitis Sarcoptes scabiei hyperthyroidism myocardial infarction angina pectoris Atherosclerosis glaucoma safe spinal cord impairments circulation Parkinson Right CVA complimentary medicine amputation muscular dystrophy (MD) Closed women autoimmune illness ringworm itching inflammation wound shingles 1. Scabies is a skin condition caused by a tiny mite called 2. is also called herpes zoster 3. A is a type of injury to the skin 4. Dermatitis is a general term that refers to an or swelling of the skin 5. Early signs of stasis dermatitis include rash, a scaly red area and 6. is a fungal infection that causes red, ring-like patches to appear on the upper body, hands and feet 7. Arthritis may be the result of aging, injury or an 8. Osteoporosis is more common in after menopause 9. A fracture is a broken bone that does not break the skin 10. refers to several progressive diseases that cause a variety of physical disabilities due to muscle weakness 11. What is the removal of some or all of a body part, usually a foot, hand arm or leg 12. Treatment that are used in addition to the conventional treatments prescribed by a doctor is refer to as 13. or stroke is caused when the blood supply to the brain is cut off suddenly by a clot or a ruptured blood vessel 14. Weaknesses on the side show that the left side of the brain was affected 15. A person with disease may have a mask-like facial expression 16. Range of motion exercises help prevent contractures, strengthen muscles and increase 17. Multiple sclerosis is an unpredictable disease that causes varying symptoms and 18. People with injury may have paraplegia or loss of function of lower body and legs 19. During a seizure the main goal of the caregiver is to make sure that the resident is 20. is a disease that causes the pressure in the eye to increase 21. Hypertension is caused by 22. The medical term for chest pain is or hardening and narrowing of the blood vessels 23. The medical term for heart attack is 24. When the thyroid produces too much thyroid hormone the cells burn too much food this is called 25. is an infection of the vagina SECTION NINETEEN (Match to the correct answer) 1. Cognition _ A. a progressive degenerative and irreversible disease 2. Confusion _ B. the time of signs and symptoms 3. Delirium _ C. disease or condition cannot be cured 4. Dementia _ D. disease gets worse 5. Progressive _ E. disease is advance 6. Degenerative _ F. ability to think logically and quickly 7. Onset _ G. State of severe confusion 8. Irreversible_ H. serious loss of mental abilities 9. Alzheimer's disease _ I. inability to think clearly 10. In this stage of Alzheimer's the resident would be disoriented to time a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV 11. Which of the following is included in stage II Alzheimer's a. Temper tantrums b. Incontinence c. Inability to read, write or do math d. All of the above 12. Which of the following is not included in stage III Alzheimer's a. Difficulty swallowing b. Mood swings c. Inability to recognize family or self d. Increased sleep disturbances 13. People with Alzheimer's disease will not show all the symptoms at the same time a. True b. False c. None of the above d. C only 14. When residents say the same words, phrases or questions or over and over, this is called a. Reservation b. Preservation c. Presumption d. Repetition 15. Which one of the following words means a way to change an action or development? a. Determination b. Intervention c. Reservation d. Prevention 16. A resident who is excited, restless or troubled is said to be a. Triggers b. Sun downing c. Agitated d. None of the above l7. When a person gets restless and agitated in the late afternoon, evening or night it is called a. Triggers b. Sun downing c. Agitated d. None of the above 18. When a person with Alzheimer's disease overreacts to something in an unreasonable way it is called a a. Sun setting b. sun downing c. violent behavior d. Catastrophic reaction 19. A resident attacks, hits or threatens someone is a. disruptive b. violent c. alzhermic d. dementic 20. Walking back and forth in the same area is called. a. Pacing b. wandering c. Sun downing d. none of the above 21. A resident who sees things that are not there is having . a. Hallucinations b. depression c. delusions d. none of the above 22. A resident who believes things in a physical disease he has that is not there is suffering from . a. hallucinations b. depression c. Hypochondriac delusion d. none of the above 23. is taking things that belong to someone else a. sun downing b. catastrophic reaction c. hoarding d. pillaging 24. Collecting and putting things away in a guarded way is known as a. pillaging b. validating c. hoarding d. all of the above 25. Validating means a. taking things of value b. touching others c. putting a stamp on everything d. giving value to or approving SECTION TWENTY MATCH 1. Mental health ----- A. Repeated use of legal or illegal drugs 2. Mental illness ----- B. A method of treating mental illness 3. Fallacy ------ C. Form of disease that centers mainly on hallucinations and delusions 4. Denial ------ D. Lack of interest in activities 5. Projection ------ E. Anxiety caused by a traumatic experience 6. Displacement ------ F. Behavior a person uses to cope with anxiety 7. Rationalization ------ G. Causes a person to swing from deep depression to extreme activity 8. Repression ------ H. A person is terrified for no known reason 9. Regression ------- I. My cause a person to lose interest in everything l0. Anxiety ------- J. A brain disorder that affects a person's ability to think 11. Phobias ------- K. Intense form of anxiety 12. Claustrophobia ------ L. The fear of being in confined space 13. Panic disorder ------ M. Uneasiness or fear 14. Obsessive compulsive ------ N. Going back to an old immature behavior 15. Post-traumatic stress ------- O. Not remembering sexual abuse 16. Apathy ------ P. Everybody does it 17. Schizophrenia ------- Q. Transferring a strong negative feeling to a safer situation 18. Major depression ------- R. My teacher hates me 19. Manic depression ------- S. Completely rejecting the thought or feeling 20. Paranoid schizophrenia -------- T. False belief 21. Psychotherapy ------ U. A disease 22. Substance abuse ------- V. Normal functioning of emotional and intellectual abilities 23. Social interaction can promote mental and physical health a. True b. False c. None of the above 24. Common symptoms of anxiety include which of the following a. Muscle aches b. Dry mouth c. Shakiness d. All of the above 25. Which of the following is not a common symptom of schizophrenia a. Lack of energy b. Irritability c. Little or no interest in surroundings SECTION TWENTY ONE MATCH 1. Rehabilitation ------ A. Use when resident cannot move on their own 2. Trapeze ------- B. Performed by resident himself 3. Prosthesis ------ C. Moving body part away from the midline of the body 4. ROM ------ D. moving body part towards the midline of the body 5. PROM ------ E. Bending backward 6. AROM -------- F. Device that replaces a body part 7. AAROM -------- G. Turning a joint 8. Abduction ------ H. Triangular piece of equipment that hangs over the head of the bed 9. Adduction ------- I. Straightening a body part 10. Dorsiflexion ------ J. Bending a body part 11. Rotation ------ K. Turning upward l2. Extension ----- L. Care that is managed by professionals to help restore a person 13. Flexion ------- M. Turning downward l4. Pronation ------ N. Done by the resident with some assistance 15. Supination ------ O. Exercise that puts a joint through its full arc of motion Fill in the blank lncentive spirometer lungs increase circulation belts, cuffs or suction trapeze plate guard Lower high blood pressure physical and mental health rehabilitation 16. and restorative care is one of the great joy of working as a care giver 17. Exercise is important for improving and maintaining and health 18. Exercising with can be risky 19. Cool-down exercises are done to slowly the heart rate 20. prevent food from being pushed off the plate and make it easier to scoop food onto utensils 21. People in bed can grasp a 22. Most artificial limbs are attached by with their hands which enables them to lift themselves 23. The goal of ROM is to decrease or prevent contractures, improve strength and 24. Deep breathing exercise help expand the clearing them of mucus and preventing infections 25. are used for deep breathing exercises SECTION TWENTY TWO True and false 1. Sub-acute care is a kind of specialized care that falls between acute care and long term care 2. Dialysis cleanses the body of waste that the kidneys cannot remove due to chronic kidney failure 3. Anesthesia medication do not help pain 4. Before surgery there will be an order for the patient to eat as much as they want 5. A person who is having surgery will require preoperative physical preparation as well 6. NPO means you can have water but no food 7. Postoperative care begins right after surgery 8. A pulse oximeter is an invasive device that uses a light to determine the amount of oxygen in the blood 9. Normal blood oxygen level usually measures between 95% and 100% l0. Telemetry is used to measure the heart rhythm and rate on a continuous basis 11. An artificial airway is any plastic, metal or rubber device inserted into the respiratory tract to maintain or promote breathing l2. There is only one type of artificial airway 13. A sensor is a clip on a person’s finger, earlobe, or toe Fill in the blank Doctor nostrils flaring membrane, covers, protects constipation compassionate pleural cavity chest tube mucus, secretions sedative larynx mechanical ventilation tracheostomy 14. One type of artificial airway is a 15. is using a machine to assist with or replace breathing when a person is unable to do this on their own 16. The vocal cord is also called the 17. A is an agent or drug that helps calm and soothe a person and may cause sleep 18. Suctioning removes and from the lungs 19. are hollow drainage tubes that are inserted into the chest during a sterile procedure 20. The is the space between the layers of the pleura 21. Patients often have many worries before surgery but a response by staff may help alleviate concerns 22. Complications of surgery can also include urinary retention or infections, , blood pressure variance and blood clots 23. The pleura is the thin that and the lungs 24. Signs of respiratory distress include 25. A normally inserts test tubes SECTION TWENTY THREE 1. is a disease or condition that will eventually cause death a. Stroke b. Denial c. Terminal illness d. None of the above 2. Who researched and wrote about the grief process? a. Elizabeth kubler-Ross b. Abraham Maslow c. Erik Erikson d. Rick Dickson 3. Which of the following includes the five stages of death and dying? a. Denial, shock, anger, guilt, depression b. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance c. Anger, depression, regret, loneliness, pain d. Pain, hunger, thirst, guilt, fear 4. Slow irregular respirations or rapid shallow respirations are called a. Cheryl-stokes b. Cherry-stokes c. Chin-stokes d. Cheyne-stokes 5. When the muscles in the body become stiff and rigid this is called a. Rigor mortis b. Reggae mortis c. Roger mortis d. Rogain mortis 6. is care of the body after death a. Premortem care b. Palliative care c. Personal care d. Postmortem care 7. Rigor mortis is a for stiffness of death a. Greek word b. Latin word c. French word d. German word 8. Which of the following is the removal of organs and tissues for the purpose of transplanting into someone who needs them a. Organic donation b. Oregon donation c. Organ donation d. Oregano donation 9. PCA means a. Patient-controlled analgesia b. Patient-care analysis c. Patient-comfort analysis d. None of the above Match the following 10. Denial ------ A. May be surprise of the death of our love ones 11. Anger ------ B. May regret things we said or did not say 12. Bargaining ------- C. We may cry or feel emotionally unstable 13. Depression -------- D. Missing someone who has died 14. Acceptance ------- E. The practices we grow up with 15. Shock ------ F. Allow people to choose what medical care they want or do not want 16. Regret -------- G. Plan for their last days or ceremony 17. Sadness -------- H. Denying or refusing to believe we are grieving 18. Loneliness -------- I. Cry or withdraw 19. Cultural background J. make promises to God 20. Advance directive K. We may be angry with ourselves or God True and false 21. A person who is dying may become depressed and withdrawn 22. The goal of hospice are comfort and dignity of the resident 23. Being a good listener can be a great help to a dying resident and his/her family 24. A DNR tells medical professionals to perform CPR 25. A dying resident's room should be softly lit without glare SECTION TWENTY FOUR Fill in the blank lmprove constructive polite internet health regularly proud support tolerance stressor stress l-2 hours OBRA suggestions criticism B, C job description lie criminal resume called potential hands-on lab technicians direct service 1. Nursing assistants, doctors and nurses all provide 2. may conduct tests to help diagnose a condition 3. Chiropractors perform manipulations or adjustments of the spine or other joints 4. To find a job you must first fine employers 5. References are people who can be to recommend you as an employee 6. A is a summary or listing of relevant job experience and education 7. Never on your job application 8. By law employer must perform a background check on all new aides hired 9. A is an agreement between the employer and the employee 10. Hepatitis and are blood borne diseases that that can cause death 11. Handling is hard for most people 12. Ask for when receiving constructive criticism 13. requires that each state keep a registry of nursing assistants 14. The federal government requires that nursing assistants have of continuing education 15. is a state of being frightened, excited, confused, in danger or irritated 16. Something that causes stress is a 17. Your of stress depends on your personality, life experiences and physical health 18. groups can help you deal with different types of stress 19. Be of the work you have chosen to do. It is important 20. Exercise is one way to decrease stress 21. health educators and prevention professionals teach the general population or specific populations 22. Searching the is one good way to find a job 23. Be and make eye contact while interviewing 24. Hostile criticism and criticism are not the same thing 25. Constructive criticism is meant to help you