CMA (AAMA) Exam| AAMA Prep Test - 758 Questions and Answers; Distinction Level Assignment Has everything Fall 2021/2022.

AAMA Prep Test - 758 Questions & Answers, all verified correct. 715. Patients with irritable bowel syndrome will experience which of the following symptoms? a. Diarrhea b. Flatulence c. Constipation d. Patients can experience a variety of symptoms that can include all of the above. 716. Diabetic patients are monitored by using which of the following tests? a. KUB b. Troponin c. Fe++ d. HbA1C 717. Patients diagnosed with hypertension are given a medication called hydrochlorothiazide. How does this medication work to treat hypertension? a. It reduces the amount of red blood cells in the bone marrow. b. It allows muscles to contract more forcefully. c. It increases urination. d. None of the above. 718. Psoriasis: a. may be treated with phenytoin. b. is a skin condition involving flaky or oozing patches of skin. c. is most commonly found on the backs of the legs. d. None of the above. 719. Patients who have anxiety: a. are treated episodically. b. are treated prophylactically. c. may be treated with citalopram. d. All of the above. 720. Skin nodules, such as nevi: a. may become malignant. b. should be seen by a physician, even if not suspicious. c. are graded using an acronym, "ABCDE." d. All of the above. 721. Strep throat: a. is not contagious. b. can lead to rheumatic fever. c. is caused by the bacteria Streptobacillus pyogenes. d. All of the above. 722. Patients with epistaxis: a. should tilt the head forward, not backward. b. should be taken to the emergency room regardless of the severity. c. should be treated with aspirin therapy to reduce the severity. d. All of the above. 723. A patient with a verruca (Choose the BEST answer.) a. is infected with the HCV virus. b. can be treated with an OTC medication. c. is not contagious. d. None of the above. 724. Aspirin: a. can be safely given to infants and children. b. is taken by patients daily in high dose form to prevent heart attacks. c. has a side effect of being an anticoagulant. d. All of the above. 725. Cystic fibrosis is a(n): a. autoimmune disease. b. condition that can be tested by monitoring the chloride levels of the patient's sweat. c. disease that can be cured with medications and intensive therapy. d. All of the above. 726. Patients with HIV : a. also have AIDS. b. can spread the disease by casual contact. c. have engaged in homosexual activity at some point in their lives. d. can live for many years by taking antiviral medications and practicing a healthy lifestyle. 727. To treat a cold: a. see a doctor for an antibiotic prescription. b. use palliative treatment options. c. take in many more calories than usual as in, "Feed a cold; starve a fever." d. All of the above. 728. The procedure used to remove the gall bladder is called: a. Cholecystectomy b. Cholelithiasis c. Colectomy d. Cystorrhaphy 729. Although not present with all migraines, which of the following is a symptom of migraine? a. Increased sensitivity to light, sound, and/or smell. b. Aura c. Nausea with or without vomiting d. All of the above. 730. Testing for preeclampsia is done: a. on toddlers who have seizures. b. on the elderly with syncope. c. on preteens with epistaxis. d. on pregnant women. 731. Patients with pancytopenia: a. have an increased risk of hemorrhage. b. have an increased risk of developing infection. c. may be anemic. d. All of the above. 732. A patient presents to the office with chief complaint of RLQ pain. Which of the following pathologies would be MOST likely possible? a. Appendicitis b. Gall stones c. Splenomegaly d. Pancreatitis 733. Patients who have diets deficient in calcium will have which of the following symptoms? a. Bruising b. Osteopenia c. Kyphosis d. All of the above. 734. The most commonly abused drug in children under 18 is: a. Alcohol b. Marijuana c. Crack d. Cocaine 735. A 17 year old patient was brought to the clinic because of bruises and hematoma. There was no history of trauma, accident or injury. The patient's history is positive for blood disease. If the patient has a vitamin deficiency related to the blood, in which vitamin is she deficient? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin B 736. Which diet helps in preventing constipation? a. High fiber b. Low residue c. Low fiber d. Bland 737. Scurvy is caused by what vitamin deficiency: a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C 738. This vitamin helps the skin, nails, hair and sharpens the vision: a. Iron b. Folic acid c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin E 739. The substance in the body that is needed for energy: a. Protein b. Fat c. Carbohydrate d. Minerals 740. If the patient's BMI is 27, what would be the classification of the patient? a. Overweight b. Underweight c. Normal weight d. Obese 741. What vitamin deficiency will lead to night blindness? a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C 742. Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency of: a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C 743. Mrs. Nagal is 6 weeks pregnant. She has a family history of congenital birth defects. She is concerned about neurological diseases during pregnancy. Which vitamin is used in pregnancy to prevent her baby from having Spina Bifida? a. Folic acid b. Iron c. Ascorbic acid d. Magnesium 744. A 42 year old male came to the clinic complaining of twitching of the muscles. Sometimes the patient involuntary jerks for no reason. He said he started experiencing the twitches after he started water therapy and started to urinate frequently. Which mineral most likely is the culprit for his twitching? a. Manganese b. Magnesium c. Copper d. Zinc 745. An early childhood disease caused by deficiency in calcium, vitamin D, and phosphate: a. Hallux valgus b. Osteomalacia c. Rickets d. Kyphosis 746. What is the most common cause of hepatitis? a. Syphilis b. Drugs c. The human immunodeficiency virus d. Viruses 747. Mr. Phillips comes to your clinic with his 4-year-old son. The child has been telling his parents that his ears hurt and he has not felt well for a few days. What is most likely to be his diagnosis? a. Otitis externa b. Ishihara disease c. Tinnitus d. Otitis media 748. Mr. Martinez is a 75-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with hardening of the arteries. What term will the physician use in the documentation? a. Arteriosclerosis b. Aneurysm c. Varicose veins d. Atherosclerosis 749. A 47-year-old chronic alcoholic male was admitted because he is not oriented to time and place. He also has memory loss, unsteady gait and numbness. Which vitamin is most likely the culprit? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin B1 d. Vitamin K 750. A 25 year old vegan patient was brought to the clinic because of fatigue. The patient was diagnosed with anemia. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies can cause this disease? a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin B3 751. A patient complained of chest pain, diaphoresis and anxiety. The patient was diagnosed with Coronary Artery Disease. The lipid that is most likely linked to it is: a. LDL b. HDL c. Polyunsaturated fats d. Triglycerides 752. A patient was brought to the emergency room because of sudden sharp pain and swelling of the big toe. The patient has a history of gout. What is the recommended diet for this patient? a. Low salt b. Low sugar c. Less meat d. High fiber 753. A patient was complaining of weakness, fatigue, constipation and muscle cramping. Blood tests reveal hypokalemia. What is the treatment for this condition? a. Iron b. Calcium c. Potassium d. Transfusion 754. As food goes down through the digestive tract, nutrients are transferred to the blood stream. This process is referred as: a. Digestion b. Ingestion c. Metabolism d. Absorption 755. If the patient ingested 10 grams of fat, how much calories did he actually eat? a. 40 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90 756. Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin? a. Cyanocobalamin b. Niacin c. Retinoic acid d. Folic acid 757. The nutrient that builds and repairs body tissues: a. Glucose b. Vitamins c. Proteins d. Minerals 758. Which of the following is not considered a mineral? a. Iodine b. Riboflavin c. Magnesium d. Zinc 642. Category A drugs include those that: (Choose the BEST answer.) a. can be safely taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. b. have been proven to be dangerous when taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. c. have a high potential for abuse. d. have a low potential for abuse. 643. Drug schedules: a. relate to controlled substances. b. are based on the potential for abuse. c. are scheduled in five categories with Schedule I being the most dangerous. d. All of the above. 644. If a doctor's order calls for the administration of 500 mg of medication, how many grams should be given? a. 500 b. 50 c. 0.5 d. 5 645. Which of the following medications would be given to treat vomiting? a. Simvistatin b. Acetaminophen c. Lisinopril d. Promethazine 646. A patient has been diagnosed with an irregular heartbeat. Which of the following medications would be prescribed to treat this condition? a. Antiarrhythmic b. Antipsychotic c. Cathartic d. Antiseptic 647. Which of the following drugs would be used to treat GERD? a. Claritin b. Nexium c. Nuprin d. Celebrex 648. Of the following medications, which is not used to treat depression? a. sertraline hydrochloride b. paroxetine hydrochloride c. Citalopram d. Nifedipine 649. Which of the following formulas would correctly solve a dosage calculation problem? a. (Ordered dosage/ Dosage On hand) * Amount of Drug = Dosage to be given b. (Dosage on hand/ Ordered dosage) * Amount of Drug = Dosage to be given c. (Amount of Drug/ Ordered dosage) * Dosage on hand = Dosage to be given d. None of the above are correct. 650. Which of the following agencies would be responsible for monitoring the use of controlled substances? a. CDC b. DEA c. AMA d. FDA 651. A medical assistant is going to give a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following is TRUE concerning this procedure? a. No more than 2 ml of medication should be injected using the subq method. b. The angle of the needle should be 90 degrees. c. The injection can be given in the antecubital space. d. The needle length should be greater than one inch. 652. Complete the following analogy: The smaller the lumen of a needle, a. the larger the opening of the needle. b. the larger the gauge of the needle. c. the more pain that is produced from the injection. d. the more medication that can be administered at once. 653. A doctor's order is written to give a patient a medication using a non-parenteral route. Which of the following is a non-parenteral route of medication administration? a. Rectal Suppository b. Intracardiac c. IV drip d. IM injection 654. A patient is morbidly obese. Which of the following needles would be best to give an IM injection in the deltoid? a. 25 gauge 5/8 inch b. 27 gauge 1/2 inch c. 21 gauge needle 1 1/2 inches d. 16 gauge needle 3 inch 655. When giving an injection of insulin, which of the following is TRUE? a. The deltoid muscle is the preferred injection site for insulin. b. The angle of the needle should be 90 degrees. c. The site should not be massaged after medication administration. d. All of the above are true. 656. When giving a patient eye drops, a. the proper medical term for this procedure is, "Instillation." b. Pull the lower eye lid down and place the drops in the conjuctival space. c. Allow the patient to blink a few times after administration to help distribute the medication. d. All of the above. 657. Buccal administration of medications: a. should be done under the tongue. b. are done to allow controlled dosing through the mucosa. c. are best to use in small children. d. All of the above. 658. ID injections are used for which of the following procedures? a. Allergy testing b. TB testing c. Drug sensitivity testing d. All of the above. 659. A medical assistant is applying a transdermal patch. Which of the following procedures should the MA use and why? (Choose the BEST answer.) a. The MA should use gloves to protect herself from getting the medication on her hands when applying the patch. b. The MA should tell the patient to change the patch as many times as necessary if it appears to be falling off. c. The MA should place the patch in an area that the patient cannot reach to avoid the temptation for the patient to pick at the patch and have it fall off. d. The MA should instruct the patient to contact the office each time the patch is changes. 660. A doctor orders 50 mg of a medication. The available dose is 5 mg/2 ml. How much medication should be given to the patient? a. 20 mg b. 5 ml c. 20 ml d. 10 ml 661. Clark's Rule: a. is based on BSA. b. uses the child's weight and height. c. uses a nomogram. d. uses a child's weight and assumes the child's weight and height are in proportion. 662. This is the part of the prescription form that indicates the names and quantities of ingredients to be included in the medication. a. Inscription b. Superscription c. Subscription d. Rx 663. To ensure that verbal orders for medications are recorded accurately, a. the medical assistant should read the order back to the physician. b. the medical assistant should ask for clarification on any misunderstood information. c. the medical assistant should write down the order exactly as written. d. All of the above. 664. If a medication order states that 300 mg of medication are to be given q.i.d. for 10 days, how many total milligrams of medication will be given over those 10 days? a. 3000 mg b. 9000 mg c. 12000 mg d. None of the above. 665. A doctor orders 500 mg of medication. Available in stock are one gram tablets. How many tablets should be given to the patient? a. One b. Two c. One half d. Three quarters 666. To most accurately measure medication, a. Use a syringe that is closest in volume to the amount of medication needed. b. Read oral medication volume that is poured into a small measuring cup at eye level. c. Double check the order for accuracy. d. All of the above. 667. The form of a drug when a drug is sweetened and flavored but is thinner than syrup: a. elixir b. liniment c. spirits d. tincture 668. The study of harmful substances or "poisons" is classified as: a. Pharcodynamics b. Pharmacopoisonology c. Toxicology d. Pharmacotherapeutics 669. When a drug is used externally with massage to produce the feeling of heat to the area, the form of drug is: a. liniment b. elixir c. lotion d. solution 670. The classification of drugs that prevent or stop the patient from further bleeding are: a. anticoagulants b. diuretics c. hemostatics d. antiarrhythmics 671. Which of the following is NOT included in the 6 rights of drug administration? e. right dose a. right time b. right route c. right doctor 672. How a drug is processed and cleared in the body is referred to as: a. metabolism b. antagonism c. distribution d. synergism 673. The prefix "centi" means: a. one hundredth of a unit b. one thousandth of a unit c. one millionth of a unit d. one tenth of a unit 674. The part of the prescription that tells you if the drug can be replaced by the pharmacist: a. Repetatur b. Dispense As Written (D.A.W.) c. Subscription d. Signature 675. This injection technique or route of administration is performed at an angle of 90 degrees: a. subcutaneous injection b. intravenous injection c. intramuscular injection d. intradermal injection 676. If the medication is supposed to be given q6, how many times will you give the medication to the patient in a day? a. 4 b. 5 c. 3 d. 6 677. The prescription signature: "ss tab TID x 14 d" means: a. 1/2 tablet three times a day for 14 days b. 1/2 tablet every 3 hours for 14 days c. 1/2 tablet every 6 hours for 14 days d. 1/2 tablet four times a day for 14 days 678. This injection or route of administration is usually given during PPD: a. subcutaneous injection b. intravenous injection c. Intramuscular injection d. intradermal injection 679. The part of the prescription that gives the refill information: a. Inscription b. D.A.W. c. Signature d. Repetatur 680. The abbreviation "s.o.s" means: a. At night b. Immediately c. If necessary d. By mouth 681. What abbreviation means "drops"? a. s.c. b. p.c. c. h.s. d. gtt 682. A physicians' prescription ordered 120 mg per day of a medication for a patient. The patient is to take one-half the dose in the morning and one-half in the evening. The medication comes only in 30mg tablets. How many tablets will the patient take combined in one day? a. 6 b. 8 c. 4 d. 2 683. Used therapeutically, certain medications reduce anxiety in certain stress disorders, relieve insomnia and aid in pain relief. Which of these would not? e. Depressants a. Barbiturates b. Tranquilizers c. Hallucinogens 684. Medication, when applied to a patch that is affixed to the patient's skin, is called: e. Buccal a. Transdermal b. Topical ointment c. Mantoux test 685. What is another name for a prefilled syringe? a. Flange b. Insulin syringe c. Tuberculin syringe d. Cartridge 686. To calculate doses, what is the pediatric method for calculation based on infants younger than 2 years old? e. Clark's Rule a. Nomogram b. Fried's Rule c. Young's Rule 687. Before you prepare any medication to be administered to a patient, you should: a. Ask the patient how he or she would like to receive the medication b. Ask if the patient is allergic to any medication c. Ascertain the patient's comfort level and ability to receive medication d. Check the medication three times before administering it 688. Your patient has been placed on two different medications. Your patient is not improving and the physician discovered that one drug decreased the effect of the other. What is this drug interaction called? a. Potentiation b. Antagonism c. Side effect d. Pharmacokinetics 689. The study of drug action as it moves in the body: a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacokinetics c. Pharmacology d. Cumulative effect 690. Which of the following is a prophylactic drug? a. Corticosteroids b. Compazine c. Amoxicillin d. Hepatitis B vaccine 691. Your patient is displaying signs and symptoms of chronic anxiety. Which type of drug might be appropriate? a. Diazepam b. Ritalin c. Testosterone d. Amoxicillin 692. Some drugs come from a plant source. An example of one of these drugs would be: a. Humulin b. NSAIDS c. Demerol d. Codeine 693. In terms of the administration of medication, what does "contraindication" mean? a. A condition in which a drug should never be used b. The interaction between two drugs that work together c. Anaphylaxis d. Cumulative effect 694. Any refrigerator or freezer used for vaccine storage must: a. Be a special unit inspected by the National Vaccine Center every year b. Be located in a locked room with no heater vents c. Be dedicated to the storage of only vaccines and medications d. Ensure the maintenance of the cold chain 695. A 5 year old boy has ear infection. He has fever and otalgia. To address his fever, the recommended medication is: a. Antibiotic b. Antipyretic c. Anesthetic d. Anti-anginal 696. The nurse is contemplating if she would request an oral medication or parenteral medication from the physician. What is a disadvantage of the oral route? a. It is easily taken by the patient. b. It is not the fastest absorption route into the blood stream. c. It is considered safest because medications can be retrieved easily than other routes. d. It does not require special devices or equipment. 697. Some medications have special coating to protect them from the acidity of the stomach and that allows them to pass the small intestines for absorption. This is referred to as: a. Slow-release coated medications b. Double-coated medications c. Enteric-coated medications d. Rapid-response medications 698. A lotion is an example of what type of drug administration? a. Parenteral b. Intradermal c. Topical d. Enteral 699. A patient was diagnosed with pneumonia, and is coughing continuously. The doctor advised the patient to take Robitussin. What is the classification of Robitussin? a. Antitussive b. Anti-inflammatory c. Antibiotic d. Analgesic 700. The mother of an 8 year old gave her son Calamine lotion because he was complaining of itchiness. This medication is classified as a(n): a. Adrenergic b. Antiemetic c. Analgesic d. Antipruritic 701. What is the recommended immunization for a baby who was just born? a. Hepatitis B b. Flu shot c. Measles d. Pertussis 702. The vaccine DTaP refers to: a. Diptheria, Tuberculosis, Pertussis vaccine b. Diabetes, Tetanus, Pneumonia c. Diptheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine d. Diabetes, Tuberculosis, Pneumonia vaccine 703. The physician wrote on the prescription "Take Penicillin 1 tablet qid." The abbreviation "qid" means: a. Two times a day b. Three times a day c. Four times a day d. Orally 704. The pharmacist should look for which number on the prescription to determine if the prescriber is licensed to prescribe controlled substances? a. DEA number b. Medical license number c. Prescription number d. PRE number 705. A 52 year old male is requesting a medication for his erectile dysfunction. Which medications would most likely be prescribe by a physician? a. Sildenafil b. Gabepentin c. Azithromycin d. Simvastatin 706. Drugs of abuse such as Heroin, and Cocaine are classified under what drug schedule? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV 707. A patient was rushed to the hospital because of severe high blood pressure. Which route of drug administration is recommended so that the medication given is instantaneous and complete? a. Intradermal b. Intravenous c. Intramuscular d. Intraarterial 708. What drug is contraindicated if the patient has a bleeding disorder? a. Anticoagulants b. Diuretics c. Anticonvulsants d. Antihypertensives 709. The generic drug flouxetine is also known as Prozac. It is indicated for which disorder? a. Erectile dysfunction b. Diabetes c. Schizophrenia d. Depression 710. Which of the following is not a recommended site for IM injections? a. Deltoid b. Abdomen c. Vastus lateralis d. Gluteus Maximus 711. The route of medication administration that goes to the fatty layer is: a. Intramuscular b. Subcutaneous c. Intradermal d. Intralipoid 712. The generic name of both Advil and Motrin is: a. Acetaminophen b. Naproxen c. Ibuprofen d. Amoxicillin 713. A patient was diagnosed with high cholesterol during blood testing. Which of the following drugs is recommended for his condition? a. Prednisone b. Xanax c. Ambien d. Lipitor 714. A 28 year old complains of insomnia after breaking up with her boyfriend of 10 years. She requested a sleeping pill. Which of the following is recommended for her? a. Nexium b. Amoxil c. Ambien d. Allegra 592. A patient is describing a contusion of his arm over the telephone to you. Which of the following descriptions would closely describe a contusion? a. Blood collecting under the skin without a break in the skin. b. A clean cut that has broken the integrity of the skin. c. A jagged cut that has broken the integrity of the skin. d. A puncture which has pierced the top layers of the skin. 593. The elderly and very young: a. have increased susceptibility to infectious pathogens. b. are more sensitive to heat and cold. c. have a higher risk of falls. d. All of the above. 594. Which would be the first step when a patient passes out at the front desk? a. Call 911. b. Initiate CPR. c. Shake the patient and ask if he is ok. d. Check for a pulse. 595. Which of the following is considered a best practice when preparing the office for emergency situations? a. Document all training of employees on emergency situations. b. Require all employees to have current CPR certification. c. Have a current copy of all MSDS sheets for all chemicals used in the office. d. All of the above. 596. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied? a. 100 per minute b. 60 per minute c. As quickly as possible. d. 200 per minute 597. A patient presents to the office with a pencil that has completely penetrated the palm of her hand. Which of the following treatments would be BEST in this situation? a. Assist the doctor while she sedates the patient and removes the pencil from her hand. b. Have the patient gently pull the pencil out of her hand and assist the physician with stitches. c. Wrap a gauze wrap around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room. d. Tell the patient to go the local emergency room. With a doctor's order, give the patient some aspirin for the pain. 598. Which acronym would BEST describe the procedure for assessing a patient that appears unconscious? a. WBC b. QRS c. XYZ d. ABC 599. A patient is on the telephone stating that her son has just been stung by a bee. Which of the following recommendations is used when dealing with this emergency? a. Ask the mother if her son is known to be allergic to bees. b. Ask the mother to tell her son to remain calm and still to help slow the spread of venom. c. Tell the mother to remove the stinger by scraping at the stinger rather than trying to pull it out. d. All of the above are true. 600. Which of the following symptoms can occur with a heart attack? a. Cyanosis b. Syncope c. Ashen skin d. All of the above. 601. The most dangerous time of the day for sunburn is: a. between 10am and 2pm. b. the early morning hours. c. between 2pm and 4pm. d. As long as sunscreen is applied once before going into the sun, there is no danger. 602. The acronym FAST is used to help responders remember the steps to recognizing which of the following conditions? a. Onset of labor in a pregnant woman b. Stroke c. Heart attack d. Migraine 603. The Rule of Nines is used to: a. determine the amount of the body surface that has been burned. b. assess the level of oxygen saturation in a body that has been burned. c. determine the level of tissue damage that has occurred in a burn. d. None of the above. 604. First aid for frostbite includes: a. Running cold water over the affected area. Warm or hot water will shock the area and cause more tissue damage. b. Run warm water over the area to rewarm the affected area. c. Run hot water over the area to warm the area as quickly as possible. d. Cover the area with a blanket, using a heating pad if the blanket isn't warm enough. 605. A patient is having a grand mal seizure. Which of the following would be appropriate when performing first aid? a. Place a tongue depressor in the patient's mouth so he does not swallow his tongue. b. Restrain the patient in the event his thrashing movements cause him to harm himself. c. Move the patient to an open area where he will be less likely to harm himself while convulsing. d. Shake the patient until he becomes responsive. 606. You witness an automobile accident on the way to work. Which of the following would be an indication that a patient has experienced head trauma? a. bleeding from the rectum b. extreme hunger c. Vomiting d. rapid pulse rate 607. Improper placement of the hands under the rib cage when performing the Heimlich maneuver could result in: a. damage to the manubrium of the sternum. b. damage to the coccyx. c. a broken xiphoid process. d. None of the above is possible, even with improper hand placement. 608. Which type of shock is related to low blood volume? a. Psychogenic b. Cardiogenic c. Anaphylactic d. Hemorrhagic 609. A common fracture found in children that exhibits a bending of the bone with a partial break is a: a. Compound fracture b. Comminuted fracture c. Greenstick fracture d. Colles' fracture 610. A patient reports that she was out in the sun for several hours the day before. She now has a burn that covers her back. The burn does not show signs of blistering, but is warm to the touch and very painful. It appears that the burn affects her epidermis. Which of the following is the most logical diagnosis? a. First degree burn b. Second degree burn c. Third degree burn d. Fourth degree burn 611. A patient is bleeding profusely from an injury near her wrist. Which of the following first aid procedures would be MOST appropriate? a. Place a tourniquet on her arm above the injury. b. Place pressure on her brachial artery. c. Place pressure on her radial nerve. d. Cover the bleeding area with wet towels. 612. Which of the following safety suggestions would apply to the use of the AED? a. Do not use on the chest area. b. Do not use in water. c. Do not use on females with documented heart conditions. d. None of the above are applicable to the AED. 613. Patients that are exhibiting signs of cyanosis will: a. show signs of hyperoxia. b. will have increased O2 saturation. c. will have blood levels of CO2 that are higher than O2 levels. d. None of the above. 614. The medical term, "diaphoresis," means: a. Profuse vomiting b. Profuse sweating c. Gasping for air d. None of the above. 615. When would chest thrusts be performed in an emergency situation? a. When performing CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation. b. When assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient. c. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking. d. None of the above examples indicate the need for chest thrusts. 616. When receiving CPR certification through the American Heart Association at the healthcare provider level, how often is recertification necessary? a. Annually b. Biannually c. Every two years d. Certification is a one-time training and the credential is good for the life of the certificant. 617. A 56 year old female complained of dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The patient is a known diabetic. You took the patient's blood sugar and it showed hypoglycemia. What is the next best step? a. Give her Nitroglycerin b. Give juice, candy or soda c. Assess the patient's airway d. Perform ECG 618. A patient was stung by a bee while on a camping trip. After 30 minutes, she complained of wheezing and hives. Most likely, the patient has: a. Asthma b. Shock c. Anaphylaxis d. Stroke 619. You found a patient lying on the ground. As a medical assistant, what is the first step to determine if the patient needs CPR? a. Check chest compressions b. Check the carotid pulse c. Confirm if the patient is unconscious d. Give mouth to mouth resuscitation 620. A patient was brought to the emergency room because of slurring of speech and weakness of the right arm. Six hours after, the patient feels normal. What is the condition of this patient? a. Stroke b. TIA c. Myocardial infarction d. subarachnoid hemorrhage 621. A patient presents with a rapid and weak pulse, shallow breathing, hypotension and cold and clammy skin from a gunshot wound. What is the condition of this patient? a. Hemorrhage b. Shock c. Stroke d. Heart attack 622. A 55 year old male patient presents with symptoms of diaphoresis and chest pain more than 30 minutes, not relieved by analgesics. What condition should be suspected in this patient? a. Pneumonia b. Stroke c. Myocardial infarction d. Pneumothorax 623. The doctor ordered the medical assistant to apply RICE to the patient with a sprain. Which of the following is not a RICE application? e. Rest the injured part a. Put ice on the affected areas b. Conditioning c. Elevate the affected area 624. A patient was brought to the clinic because of a burn on the right hand. The site has blistered red appearance with edema. What is the classification of the patient's burn? a. Superficial b. Partial thickness c. Full thickness d. 3rd degree 625. A 65 year old female was brought to the emergency room because of high fever, hypotension, tachypnea and cold, clammy skin. The patient has severe pneumonia. What type of shock does the patient have? a. Septic shock b. Neurogenic shock c. Cardiogenic shock d. Anaphylactic shock 626. A 28 year old man cut himself with a knife while slicing a rack of ribs. To control the patient's hemorrhage, the initial step is to: a. Apply a tourniquet below the site b. Immobilize the part c. Apply direct pressure d. Give topical antibiotic 627. If a patient is choking and cannot speak or breathe, what should be done? a. Give the patient water to push the obstruction b. Give chest compressions c. Do the Heimlich maneuver d. Begin CPR 628. If a patient complains of dizziness and is about to faint, what steps should be taken? a. Ask the patient stand and do light exercise b. Give the patient soda or sugary drink c. Sit the patient with the head lower than the heart d. Do chest compressions 629. Which of the following is not recommended when assessing emergency cases? a. Call 911 b. Use the ABC method to assess the patient c. Move the patient and transfer to a chair or bed d. Look for alert tags 630. Which of the following medications is used for anaphylaxis? a. Adenosine b. Epinephrine c. Lasix d. Narcan 631. A 45 year old male was brought to the clinic because of chest pain. The patient has a history of hypertension and heart disease. Which medication should the patient take to relieve his chest pain? a. Nitroglycerin b. Adrenalin c. Insulin d. Advil 632. A 7 year old boy tripped and fell with an outstretch arm. This injury would most likely result In a ____________. a. Colle's fracture b. Spiral fracture c. Greenstick fracture d. Rickets 633. A patient came in with a big piece of her skin and soft tissues still hanging like a flap. This wound injury is referred to as a _____________. a. contusion b. laceration c. abrasion d. avulsion 634. A 7 year old girl falls while riding her bicycle. She complains of scratches and small cuts on her skin. What type of wound does she have? e. Avulsion a. Contusion b. Abrasion c. Laceration 635. A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with confusion and severe thirst. He is a known diabetic. He mentions that he ran out of insulin 3 days ago. His blood sugar is elevated at 450 mg/dl, and his urinalysis showed ketones. What is the most likely diagnosis of the patient? a. Hypoglycemia b. Shock c. Diabetic Ketoacidosis d. Diabetes insipidus 636. A 21 year old patient came in complaining that he had been exposed to poison ivy. What initial step should be taken? a. Call 911 b. Rinse the affected area immediately with copious amount of water c. Apply antibiotic cream right away d. Call poison center and ask for antidote 637. A new medical assistant was asked to check for the pulse of a 10 month old baby. What pulse site should the medical assistant use to check for the pulse of this baby? a. Radial b. Brachial c. Carotid d. Femoral 638. A 56 year old man was brought to the emergency room because of chest pain. An ECG was done and a heart attack was ruled out. Angiography was done and the results showed 40 percent block in his coronary arteries. This condition is called: a. Myocardial infraction b. Congestive heart failure c. Myocardial ischemia d. Cardiomegaly 639. A child was brought to the emergency room because of burns from boiling water. The patient's whole left leg was burnt. What is the estimated percentage according to the rule of nines? a. 9 % b. 18% c. 1% d. 14% 640. A 5 year old boy was brought to the clinic because he fell on his right arm, injuring his elbow. The radiologist described the fracture as one side of the bone being bent and the other side broken. What type of fracture is this? a. Greenstick fracture b. Comminuted fracture c. Impacted fracture d. Spiral fracture 641. A 23 year old soldier was brought to the emergency room because of massive bleeding from a gun-shot wound. In assessing this emergency patient, ABC refers to: a. Application, Breathing, CPR b. Airway, Bleeding, Compressions c. Alert, Breathing, Cardiac d. Airway, Breathing, Circulation 532. Which of the following anticoagulants would be found in a light blue vacutainer tube? a. EDTA b. Sodium Oxalate c. Lithium Heparin d. Sodium Citrate 533. A medical assistant is asked to draw blood in the antecubital (AC) space. Which of the following veins are found in the AC? a. Cephalic b. Median cubital c. Basilic d. All of the above. 534. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true? a. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease. b. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours. c. The specimen is positive for bacteria. d. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light. 535. Which vacutainer tubes should be used when a requisition calls for blood to be drawn for an H&H and glucose test? a. One light blue, one red b. Two lavenders c. One lavender, one grey d. One green, one red 536. Specific gravity in urinalysis: a. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water. b. is useless when the patient is dehydrated. c. can only be done with a refractometer. d. None of the above. 537. When placing a patient in the AP position for an X-ray, what position would the patient be in? a. Facing the film. b. Right side against the film. c. Left side against the film. d. Facing away from the film. 538. A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding? a. Run the urine on the hand-held glucometer. b. Have another MA do a repeat dipstick. c. Run a Clinitest. d. Run an Acetest. 539. The smallest of the white blood cells which also can be involved in humoral immunity is the: a. Lymphocyte b. Monocyte c. Basophil d. Erythrocyte 540. MSDS sheets: a. Contain the ordering information for each piece of equipment in the office. b. Are required by OSHA to be accessible to all employees of the office. c. Can be used to treat patients who have been injured in equipment accidents. d. None of the above. 541. The most virulent blood borne pathogen is: (Choose the BEST answer.) a. HCV b. HPV c. HIV d. HBV 542. The NFPA diamond has four colors. The blue diamond: a. indicates hazards to health. b. designates that it is safe to use water to put out this type of fire. c. indicates that ice is necessary to treat an injury with this type of chemical. d. indicates that the chemical may be incinerated upon disposal. 543. A patient has been told to monitor her LH levels. Which of the following potential conditions might the patient be suffering from? a. Menorrhagia b. Grave's Disease c. Menopause d. Infertility 544. Manual hematocrits are done: a. to monitor anemia. b. by using a microcrit tube. c. to measure the percentage of plasma to cells. d. All of the above. 545. The BEST blood collection location for a newborn is: a. the AC. b. the veins of the forehead. c. the heel. d. the fingertips. 546. A patient has come to the office for a blood draw. The patient starts to sweat and is very anxious. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed? a. Do not perform the procedure. Notify the physician of the reason why. b. Perform the procedure but pay close attention for signs of potential syncope. c. Allow the patient to reschedule for a time where he isn't as anxious. d. Have the physician draw the blood. 547. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient that is being monitored for coagulation therapy? a. PT/INR b. CBC c. HCT d. WBC 548. Which of the following is MOST TRUE about the ESR test? a. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions. b. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness. c. Abnormal results should be followed with additional testing. d. Results are reported in millimeters per minute. 549. A patient who is blood type AB: a. can receive plasma from a type B donor. b. can receive whole blood from a type A donor. c. can receive packed RBCs from a type O donor. d. All of the above. 550. Which of the following is considered an abnormal lab result? a. WBC 10,000/ mm cubed b. Hct 50% c. ESR 22 mm/hour d. All of the above are normal. 551. The mordant in the Gram Stain procedure is: a. the chrystal violet b. the methyl alcohol c. Iodine d. Safranin 552. To properly read a meniscus, a. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level. b. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the top of the curve of the liquid level where the liquid holds to the walls of the container. c. hold the measuring device at table level and looking down into the measuring device, read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level. d. hold the measuring device at table level and looking down into the measuring device, read the top of the curve of the liquid level. 553. The purpose of performing quality control is to: a. create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control. b. improve the odds that the results that are reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible. c. Are required by law to be part of a quality assurance program. d. All of the above. 554. A urine pregnancy test: a. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive. b. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy. c. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device. d. All of the above. 555. When reading urines microscopically, urine casts must be: a. small enough to be seen under high power. b. assessed under low power. c. absent as to not impede the observation of other microscopic structures. d. None of the above. 556. A physician believes that a patient may be experiencing pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be best to diagnose this condition? a. CK and Troponin b. BUN and Creatinine c. Amylase and Lipase d. HDL and LDL Cholesterol Levels 557. An abnormality in the ventricles may be identified on the ECG strip by: a. distorted, varying P wave pattern b. wide spaces in between waves c. wide and bizarre QRS complex d. too fast heart rate 558. The standard ECG paper speed is: a. 25 mm/min b. 25 mm/sec c. 50 mm/min d. 50 mm/sec 559. During an ECG, a patient was talking, moving and chewing. What interference will show in the strip? a. Damaged cable b. Loose electrode c. Somatic tremor d. Alternating current or 60 cycle 560. Which ECG electrode is placed on the 4th ICS on the left mid-clavicular line? a. V3 b. V4 c. V5 d. V6 561. Which chest lead is placed on the 4th ICS to the right of the sternum? a. V1 b. V2 c. V3 d. V4 562. A patient came to the clinic complaining of waking up at night to urinate. The patient has a family history of diabetes. The patient's symptom is called: a. nocturia b. incontinence c. polydipsia d. oliguria 563. A patient was brought to the clinic because she has not urinated for 3 days. Blood tests shows increase in BUN and Creatinine. What is the condition of the patient? a. UTI b. Kidney stones c. Uremia d. Diabetes 564. Which of the following is not used to clean the site for a blood culture specimen? a. Iodine b. Surgical soap c. Lysol d. Alcohol 565. Which of the following blood samples should be placed in ice water? a. Lead testing b. Glucose tolerance test c. Arterial blood gases (ABG) d. Blood culture 566. The normal bleeding time is: a. 2 to 8 minutes b. 10 to 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 1 hour 567. A fingerstick is done on the following fingers: a. middle and index finger b. the thumb and the middle finger c. small and ring finger d. middle and ring finger 568. What is the number one complication of venipuncture? a. Seizure b. Hematoma c. Fainting d. Petechiae 569. A patient came in complaining of having a burning sensation while urinating. What chemical in the urine would confirm a suspicion that the patient has a urinary tract infection? a. Ketone b. Bilirubin c. Blood d. Nitrite 570. Surgical hand washing is performed in this way: a. By scrubbing for 4 minutes b. For 10 minutes using a sterile hand brush c. For 15 minutes with germicidal soap d. For a full 20 minutes 571. The transplant of animal tissue into a human: a. Isograft b. Heterograft c. Homograft d. Autograft 572. How do you know if the EKG machine is calibrated? a. It produces a calibration mark of 10 mm high. b. It produces a calibration mark of 10 mm wide. c. It produces a calibration mark of 15 mm high. d. It produces a calibration mark of 15 mm wide. 573. A medical assistant is performing ECG. Where should the V3 electrode be placed? a. 4th ICS left sterna border b. Midway between V2 and V4 c. 5th intercostals space right sterna border d. Right bicep 574. What does lead I on the ECP strip represent? a. Represents the electricity from Right arm to Left Arm (RA-LA) b. Represents the electricity from Right arm to Left Leg (RA-LL) c. Represents the electricity from Left arm to Left Leg (LA-LL) d. Represents the electricity from Right Leg to Left Leg (R-LL) 575. How would you know that the ECG cable is the Right Arm (RA) cable based on its color? a. It is colored red b. It is colored black c. It is colored green d. It is colored white 576. How will you make sure that the electrodes will adhere to the skin of the patient? a. Open a brand new electrode package b. Warm your hands c. Apply alcohol to the placement sites d. Apply the cables before placing the electrodes on the skin of patient 577. If the patient is suspected to be color blind, which test should the medical assistant prepare the patient for? a. Snellen b. E chart c. Ishihara d. Jaeger 578. If the patient complains of blurry of vision, which of the following will the doctor use to determine visual acuity? a. Snellen b. E chart c. Landolt C d. All of the above 579. A 56 year old patient was seen in the clinic because of coughing with blood. An x-ray was done which showed a mass in the hilar area of the lungs. Which of the following will be the next step of the doctor? a. Thoracentesis b. Bronchoscopy c. Spirometry d. Thoracotomy 580. A 17 year old patient was brought to the office because of hematomas and bruises. The patient denies trauma and abuse. Which blood test will most likely be positive if it was a blood disorder? a. Hemoglobin b. Patial Thromboplastin time (PTT) c. Leukocyte count d. Hematocrit 581. A physician ordered a guaiac test for a patient who was complaining of abdominal pain. What is the indication for ordering such test? a. To screen colon cancer b. To screen lung cancer c. To screen breast cancer d. To screen prostate cancer 582. A diabetic patient denies that she is not compliant with her medications. Her blood sugar is elevated. What test should be done to determine the patient's average blood sugar for the past 3 months? a. Fasting blood sugar b. Random blood sugar c. Hemoglobin A1C d. Postprandial sugar 583. A 40 year old obese female was seen in the office because of a right upper quadrant pain. If gallbladder stones are suspected, which diagnostic test would most likely be requested for this patient? a. Abdominal x-ray b. Pyelogram c. Abdominal ultrasound d. Angiogram 584. The most accurate test to diagnose hypertension is through: a. Heart angiogram b. Heart echocardiogram c. ECG d. Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope 585. Cholesterol and LDL measurement is recommended for healthy patients at what age? a. 35 for men, 45 for women b. 35 for women, 45 for men c. 45 for men, 55 for women d. 45 for women, 55 for men 586. Which of the following is not a coronary heart disease (CHD) equivalent? a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm b. Diabetes c. Peripheral vascular disease d. Thrombophlebitis 587. If a woman asks at what age should she be screened by mammography for breast cancer, your answer should be? a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 50 588. When should the Meningococcal vaccine be administered? a. age 11 b. at birth c. age 21 d. age 40 589. If alcoholism is suspected in a patient, which of the following questions should be asked? a. Do you drink heavily? b. At what age did you start drinking? c. How much do you drink a day? d. Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking? 590. If a patient asks you how often is the Tetanus vaccine given, your answer should be: a. Every year b. Every 2 years c. Every 5 years d. Every 10 years 591. A chest x-ray is the best initial radiologic test for all forms of pulmonary problems. Which of the following is not a chest x-ray view? a. PA b. oblique c. cross sectional d. Decubitus 439. Which of the following vital signs can be expected in a child that is afebrile? a. Rectal Temp of 100.9 degrees F. b. Oral Temp of 38 degrees C. c. Axillary Temp of 98.6 degrees F. d. All of the above are incorrect. 440. Intermittent fevers are: a. fevers which come and go. b. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature. c. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees in never return to normal. d. None of the above. 441. A patient's body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 97.6 degrees F in the morning to 99 degrees F in the evening. The patient is worried that this change in temperature may indicate the beginning of a fever. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon? a. The patient definitely has a fever in the evening and should be seen by a doctor. b. The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm. c. The patient is more than likely taking her temperature incorrectly. d. The patient is male and is experiencing changes related to fluctuating monthly hormones. 442. The most accurate reading for a temperature is done: a. Orally. b. Aurally through a clean canal. c. Rectally. d. Axially. 443. A patient is having difficulty understanding how to properly run her glucose meter. Which of the following teaching methods would best help the patient understand how to use her instrument correctly? a. Give the patient an instruction booklet and have her call the office if she has questions. b. Tell the patient to have a family member demonstrate how to use the instrument. c. Have the patient watch a video on the use of the instrument. d. Demonstrate the proper use of the instrument and then have the patient perform the process while still in the office. 444. The pulse point located on the top of the foot is: a. the dorsalis pedis. b. is checked in patients with peripheral vascular problems. c. absent in some patients due to a congenital anomaly. d. All of the above. 445. Over a patient's lifespan, the pulse rate: a. starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages. b. starts out slower and increases as the patient ages. c. Varies from slow to fast throughout the lifespan. d. Stays consistent from birth to death. 446. A common error when taking a pulse is: a. placing the index finger on the radial artery which is located on the thumb side of a patient's wrist. b. noting a pulse as being "weak" when the pulsation disappears upon adding pressure. c. counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four. d. None of the above will cause errors. 447. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected? a. Bradypnea b. Orthopnea c. Tachypnea d. Dyspnea 448. Rales and rhonchi are frequently noted during an examination of lung sounds. What is the difference between the two? a. Rales are louder. b. Rhonchi are noted only in infants. c. Rales occur on inspiration, rhonchi on expiration. d. Rales are noted only in infants. 449. To accurately assess a patient's respiration rate, which of the following methods would be BEST? a. Tell the patient, "Please remain silent while I count your number of breaths." b. Count respirations at the same time you are counting the pulse rate. c. Count the pulse rate for one minute, then, while keeping your index fingers on the patient's radial artery, count the respirations for an additional minute. d. Count the patient's respiration rate, then take the patient's temperature, and then take the pulse rate. 450. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for his condition? a. 142/92 b. 118/72 c. 120/80 d. 138/88 451. Korotkoff sounds are: a. sounds noted during diastole. b. the result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken. c. are only noted by skilled cardiologists. d. distinct sounds which are classified into 6 phases. 452. Which of the following is an anthropomorphic measurement? a. Blood pressure b. Temperature c. Pulse Rate d. Weight 453. The procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differs from an adult how? a. Pulse rates are not taken on infants. b. The apical pulse method is used on infants. c. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer. d. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space. 454. The patient position that is most useful for proctologic exams is the: a. Trendelenburg b. Semi-Fowler's c. Full Fowler's d. Jack Knife 455. A physician may assess turgor when: a. iron deficiency is suspected. b. heart and lung issues are suspected. c. dehydration is suspected. d. None of the above. 456. In the chain of infection, the susceptible host: a. is one that has been effectively immunized against the infectious agent. b. is not capable of supporting the growth of an infectious agent. c. can reduce the chances of being infected by living a healthy lifestyle and using proper hand washing techniques. d. will not benefit from practicing aseptic techniques. 457. The proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen would include: (Choose the BEST answer.) a. Gloves and face mask b. Level Three Bio containment uniforms c. Eye protection and shoe covers d. Splash shield and face mask 458. Surgical asepsis is being performed when: a. wiping down exam tables with bleach. b. sterilizing instruments. c. changing table paper. d. wearing gloves when performing injections. 459. The most effective step of hand washing is: a. using friction to remove potential pathogens. b. using hospital grade soap. c. moisturizing the hands after washing to prevent cracking. d. washing hands for at least 15 seconds. 460. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.) a. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG b. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG c. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph. d. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph. 461. When printing out an EKG, a medical assistant notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step? a. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest. b. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG. c. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection. d. Decrease the run speed to 50. 462. Each small square on the EKG paper is: a. .04 seconds long and 5mm tall b. .2 seconds long and 5mm tall c. .04 seconds long and 20mm tall d. .04 seconds long and 1mm tall 463. When teaching a patient to use the three point gait technique of crutch use: a. The injured leg moves ahead at the same time as both crutches. b. One crutch moves at a time and then followed by the injured leg. c. Both crutches move ahead at the same time followed by both legs at the same time. d. None of the above are correct. 464. What is the actual purpose of a visit or consult of a patient with a physician? a. Chief complaint b. History of present illness c. Past history d. General data 465. Mrs. Plan, a 46 year old female, came in to your office because of fever and jaundice. She is on her 34th week of pregnancy. The doctor diagnosed her to have Hepatitis D infection. Which of the following hepatitis virus can simultaneously be in her blood together with the Hepatitis D? a. Hepatitis B b. Hepatitis A c. Hepatitis E d. Hepatitis C 466. Which of the following instruments are used for a pelvic examination? a. Light source b. Speculum c. Percussion hammer d. All of the above e. Both a and b only - e 467. A medical assistant took the vital signs of a patient. The patient has been complaining of palpitations and dyspnea. His pulse rate is 120 and respiratory rate is 8. What is the patient's condition? a. bradycardia and bradypnea b. tachycardia and bradypnea c. bradycardia and tachypnea d. tachycardia and tachypnea 468. Marital status, occupation and lifestyle of the patient are part of the: a. Family history b. Past medical history c. Social history d. Chief complaint 469. Infection control and Universal Precautions Guidelines include the following, EXCEPT: a. Wear only PPE when in contact with infected patients b. Obtain Hepatitis B vaccination for occupational exposure to blood c. Dispose used needles in sharps container d. Proper hand washing before and after dealing with a patient 470. The purpose of a spirometer is to evaluate: a. Volume of inhaled and exhaled air in the lung b. Red blood cell mass c. Blood pressure d. Hematocrit 471. A 45 year old man came in for edema and fatigue. On physical examination, the lungs had decreased breath sounds, rales and crackles. The patient has a family history of heart disease and smokes 3 packs of cigarettes and drinks vodka every day. Under what part of the medical history, will you include the smoking and drinking habits of the patient? a. Past history b. Family history c. Social history d. Review of systems 472. Mrs. Williams came to your office with profuse vaginal bleeding because of a spontaneous abortion. Her blood pressure initially was 90/60 mmHg. Five minutes after, the bp started to go down to 70/50 mmHg. Which of the following positions should you put her in to improve her blood pressure? a. Fowler's b. Sims c. Lithotomy d. Trendelenburg 473. Betsy, a 4 month old infant, was brought to your clinic because of a seizure. The doctor asked you to obtain a rectal temperature. You obtain it using a digital thermometer and the reading is 104 degrees F. Which of the following is most likely true? a. She has normal temperature. b. Her seizure is a result of her being febrile. c. The seizure has no connection with the temperature. d. The temperature of the patient cannot result in a seizure. 474. Which of the following is not part of the medical history? a. Present history b. Review of systems c. Physical Examination d. Family history 475. What artery should be palpated during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to determine the presence of a pulse? a. Carotid pulse b. Femoral pulse c. Brachial pulse d. Radial pulse 476. A sigmoidoscopy is performed to examine the: a. Small intestine b. Rectum c. Large intestine d. lungs 477. A medical assistant does not need to wear gloves when: a. Performing blood pressure b. Transporting a urine specimen c. Lubricating a foley catheter d. Performing venipunctrue 478. A patient complains that he has had chest pains for 3 months associated with dyspnea and diaphoresis. He self medicated with aspirin and antacids. Which part of the medical history should this information be placed? a. Chief complaint b. Present Illness c. Past History d. Family History 479. You have been monitoring the oral temperature of Mr. Hadley for the past 10 days. His temperature shows that he is having alternating febrile and afebrile days. This type of fever pattern is known as: a. continuous fever b. remittent fever c. intermittent fever d. relapsing fever 480. What does pulse oximetry evaluate? a. It measures the heart rhythm of the patient. b. It measures the pulse and the respiration of the patient. c. It measures oxygen saturation in arterial blood. d. It measures oxygen saturation in venous blood. 481. Which of the following statements is an example of an open-ended question? a. "Do you have more than 1 symptom?" b. "Tell me more about your symptoms." c. "Do you have hypertension?" d. "Does your family have diabetes?" 482. All of the following are components of the infection cycle, EXCEPT: a. Reservoir b. Means of transmission c. Susceptible host d. Means of termination 483. Normally, the pulse rate is the same as the: a. number of heartbeats in one minute b. average length of beats in one minute c. number of heartbeats in 30 seconds d. difference between systolic and diastolic pressure 484. Which of the following is not properly part of the interviewing process to obtain patient medical history? a. Observe the patient's alertness, level of orientation, grooming and comfort b. Express concern and respect for the patient c. Place the patient in a private room d. Judging the behavior of the patient 485. The purpose of ear instillation is to: a. Clean the ear b. Dilate the ear c. Treat otitis externa d. Enhance hearing of the patient 486. Mrs. Simon, a known diabetic, came to your clinic because of dizziness. When you took her blood pressure while she was lying down on the bed, her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg, but when she stood up, she started to become dizzy again. A repeat blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. What would be the condition of the patient? a. Normal b. Malingering c. Having malignant hypertension d. Having orthostatic hypotension 487. A patient, a 17 year old female, is complaining of palpitation and fast heart beat. The patient has a history of panic attacks and anxiety. To determine if she has tachycardia, the medical assistant decided to use her thumb to count the pulse. Is this recommended to determine pulse? a. No. The thumb has its own pulse. b. No. The skin of the thumb is too sensitive. c. No. The skin of the thumb is not sensitive enough. d. Yes, it is recommended to use the thumb to take a pulse. 488. The following are included in the rules on charting, EXCEPT: a. Check carefully the name on the chart b. Chart in pencil c. Do not chart assumptions d. Date each entry and sign with your complete name and title 489. A sphygmomanometer is used to: a. Check for heart disease b. Check blood pressure c. Check for pulse d. Check for vital signs 490. What term is used when all microorganisms including the spores in an instrument have been eliminated? a. Sterile b. Asepsis c. Sanitized d. Disinfected 491. What is the position that produces the most accurate blood pressure determination? a. Have the patient in a sitting position with an arm extended at heart level b. Have the patient in a standing position and arm curled up c. Have the patient lying down with palms in a down position d. Have the patient sitting with an arm extended above the heart 492. Red marked glass thermometers are used to take what t