ENG 101 Mod 3 Tests LATEST UPDATE

ENG 101 Mod 3 Tests LATEST UPDATE 1) Key output(s) of the Technical Planning Process include: Select the two correct answers. [Describe the purpose, inputs and outputs, and activities of the Technical Planning Process.] [Remediation Accessed :N] Applicable policies, procedures, and processes Any previously developed technical plans A Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) A Systems Engineering Plan (SEP) 2) A technical management plan which helps to "ensure that the various elements of the system are functionally, physically, and electronically capable of interacting with each other and with all external links" , is the: [Identify typical technical management plans.] Interface Management Plan. Risk Management Plan. Software Development Plan. Logistics Support Plan. Test and Evaluation Master Plan. 3) All the following are examples of so-called "specialty technical plans", EXCEPT for: [Identify specialty engineering technical management plans.] Acquisition Strategy. Security Plan. Programmatic, Environment, Safety, and Occupational Health (PESHE) Plan. Producibility Plan. Reliability Plan. 4) Systems Engineering Plan should cover: Select the four correct answers. [Describe the contents of a Systems Engineering Plan (SEP).] Systems Engineering Processes Enabling facilities for Systems Engineering Systems Engineering event timing Validation and verification test scenarios Enabling Systems Engineering tools 5) Event-based planning is orchestrated mainly around: Select the two correct answers. [Explain the difference between event-based and calendar-based scheduling.] [Remediation Accessed :N] Technical events and associated tasks. Network charts linking task and events by time. Time duration and calendar dates. Task Entry and Exit criteria. 1) Key input(s) to the Technical Planning Process include: Select the three correct answers. [Describe the purpose, inputs and outputs, and activities of the Technical Planning Process.] A Systems Engineering Plan (SEP) and other plans. Regulatory requirements Defense acquisition lifecycle phase requirements. Any previously developed technical plans. A Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP). 2) Calendar-based planning is orchestrated mainly around: Select the two correct answers. [Explain the difference between event-based and calendar-based scheduling.] [Remediation Accessed :N] Calendar dates of each event initiation. Knowledge of task completion criteria. Technical events and associated tasks. Network charts linking task and events by time 1) In general, the preferable approach to scheduling is to develop a schedule from an event-based perspective, but then convert it to a calendar-based schedule using engineering judgment based on the duration estimate to achieve the event-based criteria. [Explain the difference between event-based and calendar-based scheduling.] Fals e True 1) The purpose of the Requirements Management Process is to maintain traceability of all requirements from their origins; to document changes to them and to record the rationale for requirements changes. [Describe the purpose, inputs and outputs, and activities of the Requirements Management Process.] True Fals e 2) "Traceability", from the perspective of the Requirements Management Process, encompasses two bi-directional aspects: (1) traceability up to the Systems Specification and capability; and (2) traceability down to the lowest-level end product. [Explain why maintaining traceability between requirements is important.] Fals e True 1) Key output(s) of the Interface Management Process include: Select the two correct answers. [Describe the purpose, inputs and outputs, and activities of the Interface Management Process.] An Interface Management Plan. Interface Requirements. Interface Control Documents. Interface Specifications. 2) The DoD defines an "Open Systems" interface as one having which of the following attributes? Select the two correct answers. [Identify different types of interface.] Using widely supported, consensus-based standards. Implement via secure, military standards. Implemented via secure, proprietary standards. Based around a modular design. 3) An internal interface can be defined as: "those boundaries between products within a system model that are controlled by the developer." [Distinguish between internal and external interfaces.] True Fals e 4) The Government Program Office plays a key role in the definition and control of EXTERNAL interfaces with other program offices that are responsible for systems or products outside the contractor’s control. [Describe the role of the Government Program Office in interface management.] Fals e True 5) What key roles are played by an Interface Control Work Group (ICWG)? Select the three correct answers. [Explain the Interface Management Process functions of the Interface Control Working Group (ICWG) and various types of interface control documentation.] The ICWG is used to control and manage internal interfaces only. Performing Architecture Design Process activities. Helping to accomplish Interface Management Process activities. Helping to develop Interface Control Documents (ICD). Scheduling interface management activities. 1) What are the primary purpose(s) of the Risk Management Process? Select the three correct answers. [Describe the purpose, inputs and outputs, and activities of the Risk Management Process.] To provide information of a technical nature. To logically analyze product requirements. To development mitigation options. To implement mitigation options as needed. To identify and estimate uncertainties 2) Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Risk Management Process? [Describe how Risk Management is used.] [Remediation Accessed :N] It is a stand-alone program office effort. It is key to achieve program cost, schedule, and technical performance goals. Supports a number of other Technical Management processes. It is associated with all aspects of the technical effort. 3) Well-formed, clear risk statements are one of the key outcomes of Risk Identification. Such statements are characterized by: [Outline the importance of risk identification.] A condition as well as a consequence clause. A condition clause and a mitigation option. A condition clause, mitigation options, and implementation criteria. A structured set of mitigation options and their consequences. 4) Examples of Risk Mitigation techniques include all of the following, EXCEPT: [Summarize risk mitigation techniques] Risk rollup Risk avoidance Risk control Risk transfer Risk assumption 5) Risk Tracking is accomplished in part by monitoring many of the work products from Technical Management Processes. [Explain the role of risk tracking.] True False 1) Each of these listed activities comprise the Risk Management Process, EXCEPT: [Describe how Risk Management is used.] Risk Opportunity Assessment. Risk Identification. Risk Analysis. Risk Mitigation Planning. Risk Tracking. Risk Mitigation Plan Implementation 1) The Configuration Management Process supports: Select the three correct answers. [Describe the purpose, inputs and outputs, and activities of the Configuration Management Process.] Collecting stakeholder requirements. Proper identification of system elements. Consistency between a product and associated supporting documentation. Control and documentation of approved changes. To realizing Enabling Products. 2) The function that creates a knowledge base for performing lifecycle configuration management of a system is called: [Explain the key functions of Configuration Management.] Configuration Status Accounting. Configuration Identification. Configuration Control. Configuration Verification and Audit. Configuration Revalidation. 3) Which baseline is directly traceable to the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) and describes the system’s performance? [Identify configuration baselines, how established and their relevance.] The Functional Baseline. The System Baseline. The End Product Baseline. The Allocated Baseline. The Product Baseline. 4) Which baseline is typically established at the Preliminary Design Review (PDR)? [Relate Technical Reviews to baselines.] The Allocated Baseline. The Functional Baseline. The Development Configuration. The End Product Baseline. The Product Baseline. 5) Which of the following verifies that the related design documentation matches the validated configuration item as specified in the contract? [Describe the scope and purpose of configuration verifications and audits.] Physical Configuration Audit (PCA). Critical Design Review (CDR). System Requirements Review (SRR). Preliminary Design Review (PDR). Systems Functional Review (SFR). 1) What are the primary purposes of the Technical Data Management Process? Select the two correct answers. [Describe the purpose, inputs and outputs, and activities of the Technical Data Management Process] To identify and quantify technical uncertainties. To logically analyze Enabling Product requirements. To select criteria for deciding among alternatives. To facilitate preparation of necessary reports and reviews. To provide technical information to support other processes. 2) Data needs relating to contractor data should be specified as part of the Technical Data Management Plan and included in appropriate contractual documents. [Outline key considerations for Technical Data Management.] True Fals e 3) The Government Program Office’s key considerations in Technical Data Management should include all of the following, EXCEPT: [Outline key considerations for Technical Data Management.] Using "data calls" to maximize the amount of data to be acquired. Ensuring the data originator has availability and access permissions to technical data. Not imposing changes on existing contractor technical data management systems, whenever possible. Accepting data in an Integrated Digital Environment as the preferred method of delivery considering cost/benefit trades. 1) A purpose of the Technical Assessment Process is to develop the Systems Engineering Plan. [Describe the purpose, inputs and outputs, and activities of the Technical Assessment Process.] [Remediation Accessed :N] Fals e True 2) Why is an Integrated Baseline Review (IBR) important for Earned Value Management (EVM) implementation? [Outline the uses of Earned Value Management for determining progress against technical plans.] It confirms that technical scope is fully considered, arranged logically, and consistent with funding, thus providing a foundation for subsequent EVM application. It is held between the Preliminary Design Review (PDR) and the Critical Design Review (CDR), and it baselines the system prior to detailed design. It determines if the system structure has been integrated sufficiently to proceed to the product realization stage so that effective EVM can be used. It is a technically oriented review that establishes the Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP). 3) A Technical Performance Measurement (TPM) chart that measures the state of a specific technical parameter usually covers one phase of the acquisition lifecycle. [Describe the use of Technical Performance Measurement (TPM) for d