Pathophysiology Final Exam form A & B ( Q&A 2021 UPDATE )

Pathophysiology Final Exam form A & B 1. Activation of the classical pathway begins with: a. Viruses c. Mast cells b. Antigen-antibody complexes d. Macrophages 2. The chemotactic factor affects the inflammatory process by: a. Causing vasodilation around the inflamed area b. Stimulating smooth muscle contraction in the inflamed area c. Directing leukocytes to the inflamed area d. Producing edema around the inflamed area 3. In the later stages of an inflammatory response, which phagocytic cell is predominant? a. Neutrophils c. Chemokines b. Monocytes d. Eosinophils 4. Which cell is the body’s primary defense against parasite invasion? a. Eosinophil c. T lymphocytes b. Neutrophils d. B lymphocytes 5. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen? a. Size c. Complexity b. Foreignness d. Quantity 6. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by: a. Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell b. Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells c. Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte d. Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus 7. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? a. Yeast c. Bacteria b. Cancer cells d. Fungus 8. When a person is exposed to most antigens, antibodies can be usually detected in his or her circulation within: a. 12 hours c. 3 days b. 24 hours d. 6 days 9. Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection? a. The virus does not circulate in the blood. b. It does not have antibody receptors. c. It resists agglutination. d. The virus is a soluble antigen. 10. Which is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person? (Select all that apply.) a. Poliomyelitis b. Measles c. Tetanus d. Gonorrhea e. Diphtheria 11. Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to: a. Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation b. Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation c. Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues d. Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species 12. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity? a. Bruton disease c. Reticular dysgenesis b. DiGeorge syndrome d. Adenosine deaminase deficiency 13. Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? a. IV c. II b. III d. I 14. Which statement is true regarding immunodeficiency? a. Immunodeficiency is generally not present in other family members. b. Immunodeficiency is never acquired; rather, it is congenital. c. Immunodeficiency is almost immediately symptomatic. d. Immunodeficiency is a result of a postnatal mutation. 15. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? a. Reverse transcriptase converts single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA. b. It is needed to produce integrase. c. It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus. d. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA. 6. What is a long-term complication of rewarming as a treatment for hypothermia? a. Acidosis c. Shock b. Dysrhythmias d. Renal failure 17. Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss? a. Evaporation c. Convection b. Radiation d. Conduction 18. Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation? a. Heat cramps c. Malignant hyperthermia b. Heat stroke d. Heat exhaustion 19. Heat exhaustion results in: (Select all that apply.) a. Profuse sweating b. Profound vasodilation c. A need to ingest warm liquids d. Permanent damage to the hypothalamus e. An increased risk for future heat exhaustion 20. The existence of regular, deep, and rapid respirations after a severe closed head injury is indicative of neurologic injury to the: a. Lower midbrain c. Supratentorial b. Pontine area d. Cerebral area 21. What type of posturing exists when a person with a severe closed head injury has all four extremities in rigid extension with the forearms in hyperpronation and the legs in plantar extension? a. Decorticate c. Spastic b. Decerebrate d. Cerebellar 22. Which assessment finding marks the end of spinal shock? a. Return of blood pressure and heart rate to normal b. Gradual return of spinal reflexes c. Return of bowel and bladder function d. Evidence of diminished deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis 23. Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through vascular tangles of abnormal vessels? a. Cavernous angioma c. Arteriovenous angioma b. Capillary telangiectasia d. Arteriovenous malformation 24. The type of vascular malformation that most often results in hemorrhage is: a. Cavernous angioma c. Capillary telangiectasia b. Venous angioma d. Arteriovenous malformation 25. What are the initial clinical manifestations immediately noted after a spinal cord injury? (Select all that apply.) a. Headache b. Bladder incontinence c. Loss of deep tendon reflexes d. Hypertension e. Flaccid paralysis 26. Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect (NTD)? a. Iron c. Zinc b. Vitamin C d. Folate 27. Which defect of neural tube closure is most common? a. Anterior c. Lateral b. Posterior d. Midline 28. What is the result of a Chiari type II malformation associated with a myelomeningocele? a. Upward displacement of the cerebellum into the diencephalon b. Motor and sensory lesions below the level of the myelomeningocele c. Downward displacement of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle d. Generalized cerebral edema and hydrocephalus 29. Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize: a. Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine b. Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone c. Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens d. Neurotransmitters gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine 30. What test is performed on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect? a. Total protein c. -fetoprotein b. Culture d. C-reactive protein 31. The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include: a. Increased muscle tone and prolonged primitive reflexes b. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, clonus, and rigidity of extremities c. Scoliosis, contractures, and stiffness of trunk muscles d. Jerky uncontrolled and abrupt fine musculoskeletal movements 32. Which human physiologic system is believed to be an integral factor in unhealthy aging? a. Cardiac c. Central nervous b. Endocrine d. Urinary 33. Diabetes insipidus is a result of: a. Antidiuretic hormone hyposecretion c. Insulin hyposecretion b. Antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion d. Insulin hypersecretion 34. Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteoporosis are each caused by a: a. Posterior pituitary adenoma c. Prolactinoma b. Thymoma d. Growth hormone adenoma 35. Palpation of the neck of a person diagnosed with Graves disease would detect a thyroid that is: a. Left of midline c. Normal in size b. Small with discrete nodules d. Diffusely enlarged 36. Which statements about the human papillolmavirus (HPV) and vaccine are true? (Select all that apply.) a. Currently, two HPV vaccines have been approved for use in the United States. b. HPV is believed to be responsible for the majority of the diagnosed cases of cervical cancer. c. A form of the vaccine has been approved for use in males to prevent genital warts. d. The administration of the vaccine is a one-dose intramuscular injection. e. The recommended age for vaccination of girls is between 11 and 12 years of age. 37. Considering the pathophysiologic characteristics of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment II? a. Ovary c. Hypothalamus b. Anterior pituitary d. Vagina 38. Considering the pathophysiologic characteristics of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment IV? a. Vagina c. Ovary b. Hypothalamus d. Anterior pituitary 39. What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections? a. Development of antibiotic resistance c. Changes in pathogenicity b. Changes in virulence d. Mutations into different strains 40. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? a. Syphilis c. Chlamydia b. Herpes simplex virus d. Chancroid 41. Which statements are true concerning the sexually transmitted infection (STI) lymphogranuloma venereum? (Select all that apply.) a. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an STI commonly diagnosed in the United States. b. It begins as a skin infection. c. Lymphogranuloma venereum spreads to lymph tissues. d. Primary and secondary lesions are apparent with this STI. e. A 60-day course of oral erythromycin is the recommended treatment. 42. The absence of parietal cells would prevent the absorption of an essential nutrient necessary to prevent which type of anemia? a. Iron deficiency c. Folic acid deficiency anemia b. Pernicious anemia d. Aplastic anemia 43. Which nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of DNA and the maturation of erythrocytes? a. Protein and niacin c. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) and folate b. Iron and vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) d. Pantothenic acid and vitamin C 44. Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells represent malignant transformation and proliferation of which of the following? a. Interleukin (IL)–1, IL-2, IL-5, and IL-6 b. Tumor necrosis factor–beta c. B cells d. T cells 45. Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of which of the following? a. Philadelphia chromosome c. Microvascular thrombi b. Virchow triad d. Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells 46. Which type of hemophilia affects only men? a. Hemophilia A c. Hemophilia C b. Hemophilia B d. von Willebrand disease 47. Which hemophilia occurs equally in both men and women? a. Hemophilia A c. Hemophilia C b. Hemophilia B d. von Willebrand disease 48. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? a. 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) b. 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) c. 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) d. 1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells) 49. Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension? a. Increased norepinephrine c. Angiotensin II b. Adducin d. Insulin resistance 50. Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process? a. Inflammation c. Distention b. Occlusion d. Sclerosis