Page 1 of 127
APEA PRE-PREDICTOR EXAM — COMPREHENSIVE —EXAM QUESTIONS
LATEST EDITION 2026 – 2027 VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Q1. A 58-year-old male with hypertension reports a persistent dry cough after
starting lisinopril 2 weeks ago. What is the best next step?
A) Add a thiazide diuretic
B) Switch to losartan
C) Continue lisinopril; cough will subside
D) Order chest X-ray
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent dry cough is a classic ACE inhibitor side effect due to bradykinin
accumulation. Switching to an ARB (losartan) is the appropriate next step.
Q2. A 65-year-old female with a history of myocardial infarction presents with
dyspnea and fatigue. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate initially?
A) Chest X-ray
B) BNP level
C) Stress test
D) Echocardiogram
Correct Answer: B
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Rationale: BNP is a biomarker released by stretched ventricular myocytes and is useful
in the initial diagnosis of heart failure.
Q3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value
should be monitored to assess therapeutic effect?
A) aPTT
B) INR
C) Platelet count
D) Bleeding time
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored using the INR, which reflects the prolongation
of the prothrombin time.
Q4. A 72-year-old male with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most concerning?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, commonly causing
hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias.
Q5. A patient on an ACE inhibitor develops angioedema. What is the most
appropriate action?
A) Discontinue the ACE inhibitor immediately
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B) Continue the ACE inhibitor and monitor
C) Double the dose
D) Add a beta-blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Angioedema is a serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitors that requires
immediate discontinuation of the drug.
Q6. A patient with a history of atherosclerosis is at highest risk for developing
which of the following?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Asthma
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Renal failure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atherosclerosis is the primary underlying cause of coronary artery disease.
Q7. A patient is experiencing chest pain. Which characteristic is most consistent
with angina pectoris?
A) Sharp, pleuritic pain that worsens with inspiration
B) Substernal pressure or squeezing that is relieved by rest
C) Pain that is worse with eating
D) Pain that is relieved by lying flat
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Angina is typically described as substernal pressure or squeezing that is
provoked by exertion and relieved by rest.
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Q8. A patient with infective endocarditis is at risk for which complication?
A) Embolic events, such as stroke
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Asthma exacerbation
D) Renal stones
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Infective endocarditis can cause vegetation to embolize to the brain, kidneys,
or other organs.
Q9. A nurse is caring for a patient with pericarditis. Which finding is most
characteristic of this condition?
A) A friction rub heard on auscultation
B) Crackles in the lungs
C) Wheezing on expiration
D) A holosystolic murmur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a hallmark sign of pericarditis.
Q10. A patient with a history of heart failure is admitted with acute shortness of
breath. Which finding should the nurse anticipate when assessing the client’s
jugular venous pressure?
A) Flat neck veins when the head of the bed is at 45 degrees
B) Jugular venous distension
C) Absent jugular venous pulsations
D) Collapsed jugular veins
APEA PRE-PREDICTOR EXAM — COMPREHENSIVE —EXAM QUESTIONS
LATEST EDITION 2026 – 2027 VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Q1. A 58-year-old male with hypertension reports a persistent dry cough after
starting lisinopril 2 weeks ago. What is the best next step?
A) Add a thiazide diuretic
B) Switch to losartan
C) Continue lisinopril; cough will subside
D) Order chest X-ray
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent dry cough is a classic ACE inhibitor side effect due to bradykinin
accumulation. Switching to an ARB (losartan) is the appropriate next step.
Q2. A 65-year-old female with a history of myocardial infarction presents with
dyspnea and fatigue. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate initially?
A) Chest X-ray
B) BNP level
C) Stress test
D) Echocardiogram
Correct Answer: B
, Page 2 of 127
Rationale: BNP is a biomarker released by stretched ventricular myocytes and is useful
in the initial diagnosis of heart failure.
Q3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value
should be monitored to assess therapeutic effect?
A) aPTT
B) INR
C) Platelet count
D) Bleeding time
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored using the INR, which reflects the prolongation
of the prothrombin time.
Q4. A 72-year-old male with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most concerning?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, commonly causing
hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias.
Q5. A patient on an ACE inhibitor develops angioedema. What is the most
appropriate action?
A) Discontinue the ACE inhibitor immediately
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B) Continue the ACE inhibitor and monitor
C) Double the dose
D) Add a beta-blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Angioedema is a serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitors that requires
immediate discontinuation of the drug.
Q6. A patient with a history of atherosclerosis is at highest risk for developing
which of the following?
A) Coronary artery disease
B) Asthma
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Renal failure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atherosclerosis is the primary underlying cause of coronary artery disease.
Q7. A patient is experiencing chest pain. Which characteristic is most consistent
with angina pectoris?
A) Sharp, pleuritic pain that worsens with inspiration
B) Substernal pressure or squeezing that is relieved by rest
C) Pain that is worse with eating
D) Pain that is relieved by lying flat
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Angina is typically described as substernal pressure or squeezing that is
provoked by exertion and relieved by rest.
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Q8. A patient with infective endocarditis is at risk for which complication?
A) Embolic events, such as stroke
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Asthma exacerbation
D) Renal stones
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Infective endocarditis can cause vegetation to embolize to the brain, kidneys,
or other organs.
Q9. A nurse is caring for a patient with pericarditis. Which finding is most
characteristic of this condition?
A) A friction rub heard on auscultation
B) Crackles in the lungs
C) Wheezing on expiration
D) A holosystolic murmur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a hallmark sign of pericarditis.
Q10. A patient with a history of heart failure is admitted with acute shortness of
breath. Which finding should the nurse anticipate when assessing the client’s
jugular venous pressure?
A) Flat neck veins when the head of the bed is at 45 degrees
B) Jugular venous distension
C) Absent jugular venous pulsations
D) Collapsed jugular veins
