ECS4866 EXAM PACK 2026 | Advanced Public
Economics Past Questions and Correct
Answers Study Guide
Section 1: Questions 1–50
1. A nurse is reviewing reproductive physiology with a student. Which statement
by the student accurately describes a primary function of the male
reproductive system?
A. "It produces estrogen and progesterone."
B. "It produces sperm and introduces them into the female body."
C. "Its primary role is to regulate the menstrual cycle."
D. "It nurtures and protects a developing fetus."
Rationale: The primary biological functions of the male reproductive system are
the production of spermatozoa and their delivery into the female reproductive
tract. Estrogen/progesterone production and menstrual cycle regulation are
female functions, and nurturing a fetus occurs in the female uterus .
2. A nurse is teaching a class about male hormones. Which hormone should the
nurse identify as the primary male sex hormone?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Androgens
Rationale: Androgens, primarily testosterone, are the class of hormones
responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sexual
characteristics and reproductive function .
3. During a health assessment, a client asks when menarche typically occurs.
Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A. "It is the first ovulation cycle."
B. "It is the cessation of menstrual periods."
, C. "It is the first menstrual period."
D. "It is the final stage of menopause."
Rationale: Menarche is defined as the onset of the first menstrual period,
marking the beginning of a female's reproductive years. The cessation of menses
is menopause .
4. A nurse is counseling a couple who is trying to conceive. The woman states she
tracks her basal body temperature. The nurse should explain that a rise in basal
body temperature is most indicative of which event?
A. Onset of menses
B. Implantation
C. Ovulation
D. Peak estrogen production
Rationale: Basal body temperature typically dips slightly just before ovulation
and then rises by about 0.5–1.0°F immediately after ovulation due to the
thermogenic effect of progesterone released from the corpus luteum .
5. A nurse is reviewing a client's chart during the proliferative phase of the
menstrual cycle. Which finding should the nurse anticipate regarding the
endometrial lining?
A. It is highly vascular and secretory.
B. It is being shed through menstruation.
C. It is thick, at approximately 10–12 mm.
D. It is thin, at approximately 1–2 mm.
Rationale: During the proliferative phase, estrogen stimulates the endometrium
to rebuild and thicken. Immediately following menstruation, the lining is thin
(approximately 1–2 mm) and progressively thickens .
6. The perinatal nurse explains to a new nurse that a female fetus has developed
ovaries by which gestational age?
A. 8 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 16 weeks
Rationale: The ovaries develop in the female fetus by approximately 10 weeks of
gestation .
,7. The perinatal nurse explains to an adolescent that ova are produced and
estrogen is secreted at which phase of life?
A. Puberty
B. Birth
C. The climacteric
D. Pregnancy
Rationale: Ova are produced and estrogen is secreted during puberty, marking
the onset of reproductive capability .
8. Which hormone is responsible for regulating oogenesis?
A. Estrogen
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Progesterone
Rationale: FSH stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles,
regulating oogenesis .
9. A nurse is conducting prenatal classes. The nurse explains the incision made to
enlarge the perineal opening for a vaginal birth. What is this incision called?
A. Colposcopy
B. Episiotomy
C. Ligation
D. Septal myotomy
Rationale: An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum to enlarge
the vaginal opening for delivery .
10. A pregnant woman has been advised that she has a platypelloid pelvis type.
What action by the prenatal nurse is best?
A. Advise the woman that she may need a cesarean delivery.
B. Reassure the woman that a trial of labor will still be allowed.
C. Tell the woman that this pelvic type is most favorable for birth.
D. Recommend immediate induction of labor.
Rationale: A platypelloid pelvis is flattened and narrow, which may prevent the
fetus from descending through the birth canal, often necessitating cesarean
delivery .
, 11. A woman presents to the OB unit in active labor. She has had no prenatal care
and tells the nurse that the baby's father has gonorrhea. She has not been
treated. For what complication is the newborn at most risk?
A. Pneumonia
B. Skin lesions
C. Blindness
D. Intellectual disability
Rationale: Untreated maternal gonorrhea can be transmitted to the newborn
during vaginal delivery, causing ophthalmia neonatorum, which can lead to
blindness if not treated promptly with erythromycin ointment .
12. A woman presents to the perinatal clinic with abdominal pain. She has missed
one period and, following a transvaginal ultrasound, pregnancy is confirmed.
However, implantation has occurred in the right fallopian tube. The ectopic
mass is 3 cm and has not ruptured. The nurse prepares the patient for which
therapy?
A. Laparoscopic salpingostomy
B. Methotrexate
C. Partial salpingectomy
D. Salpingectomy by laparotomy
Rationale: Methotrexate is the treatment of choice for unruptured ectopic
pregnancy with a mass less than 3.5 cm. It is a folic acid antagonist that destroys
the rapidly dividing trophoblastic tissue .
13. The prenatal clinic nurse assesses a woman at 15 weeks gestation. The
patient's blood pressure, measured twice at intervals 1 hour apart with a cuff
that fits appropriately, is 146/96 mm Hg. The nurse understands the patient
has which condition?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. Transient hypertension
Rationale: Chronic hypertension is defined as elevated blood pressure (≥140/90
mm Hg) before 20 weeks gestation. Gestational hypertension occurs after 20
weeks without proteinuria .
Economics Past Questions and Correct
Answers Study Guide
Section 1: Questions 1–50
1. A nurse is reviewing reproductive physiology with a student. Which statement
by the student accurately describes a primary function of the male
reproductive system?
A. "It produces estrogen and progesterone."
B. "It produces sperm and introduces them into the female body."
C. "Its primary role is to regulate the menstrual cycle."
D. "It nurtures and protects a developing fetus."
Rationale: The primary biological functions of the male reproductive system are
the production of spermatozoa and their delivery into the female reproductive
tract. Estrogen/progesterone production and menstrual cycle regulation are
female functions, and nurturing a fetus occurs in the female uterus .
2. A nurse is teaching a class about male hormones. Which hormone should the
nurse identify as the primary male sex hormone?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
D. Androgens
Rationale: Androgens, primarily testosterone, are the class of hormones
responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sexual
characteristics and reproductive function .
3. During a health assessment, a client asks when menarche typically occurs.
Which response by the nurse is accurate?
A. "It is the first ovulation cycle."
B. "It is the cessation of menstrual periods."
, C. "It is the first menstrual period."
D. "It is the final stage of menopause."
Rationale: Menarche is defined as the onset of the first menstrual period,
marking the beginning of a female's reproductive years. The cessation of menses
is menopause .
4. A nurse is counseling a couple who is trying to conceive. The woman states she
tracks her basal body temperature. The nurse should explain that a rise in basal
body temperature is most indicative of which event?
A. Onset of menses
B. Implantation
C. Ovulation
D. Peak estrogen production
Rationale: Basal body temperature typically dips slightly just before ovulation
and then rises by about 0.5–1.0°F immediately after ovulation due to the
thermogenic effect of progesterone released from the corpus luteum .
5. A nurse is reviewing a client's chart during the proliferative phase of the
menstrual cycle. Which finding should the nurse anticipate regarding the
endometrial lining?
A. It is highly vascular and secretory.
B. It is being shed through menstruation.
C. It is thick, at approximately 10–12 mm.
D. It is thin, at approximately 1–2 mm.
Rationale: During the proliferative phase, estrogen stimulates the endometrium
to rebuild and thicken. Immediately following menstruation, the lining is thin
(approximately 1–2 mm) and progressively thickens .
6. The perinatal nurse explains to a new nurse that a female fetus has developed
ovaries by which gestational age?
A. 8 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 16 weeks
Rationale: The ovaries develop in the female fetus by approximately 10 weeks of
gestation .
,7. The perinatal nurse explains to an adolescent that ova are produced and
estrogen is secreted at which phase of life?
A. Puberty
B. Birth
C. The climacteric
D. Pregnancy
Rationale: Ova are produced and estrogen is secreted during puberty, marking
the onset of reproductive capability .
8. Which hormone is responsible for regulating oogenesis?
A. Estrogen
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Progesterone
Rationale: FSH stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles,
regulating oogenesis .
9. A nurse is conducting prenatal classes. The nurse explains the incision made to
enlarge the perineal opening for a vaginal birth. What is this incision called?
A. Colposcopy
B. Episiotomy
C. Ligation
D. Septal myotomy
Rationale: An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum to enlarge
the vaginal opening for delivery .
10. A pregnant woman has been advised that she has a platypelloid pelvis type.
What action by the prenatal nurse is best?
A. Advise the woman that she may need a cesarean delivery.
B. Reassure the woman that a trial of labor will still be allowed.
C. Tell the woman that this pelvic type is most favorable for birth.
D. Recommend immediate induction of labor.
Rationale: A platypelloid pelvis is flattened and narrow, which may prevent the
fetus from descending through the birth canal, often necessitating cesarean
delivery .
, 11. A woman presents to the OB unit in active labor. She has had no prenatal care
and tells the nurse that the baby's father has gonorrhea. She has not been
treated. For what complication is the newborn at most risk?
A. Pneumonia
B. Skin lesions
C. Blindness
D. Intellectual disability
Rationale: Untreated maternal gonorrhea can be transmitted to the newborn
during vaginal delivery, causing ophthalmia neonatorum, which can lead to
blindness if not treated promptly with erythromycin ointment .
12. A woman presents to the perinatal clinic with abdominal pain. She has missed
one period and, following a transvaginal ultrasound, pregnancy is confirmed.
However, implantation has occurred in the right fallopian tube. The ectopic
mass is 3 cm and has not ruptured. The nurse prepares the patient for which
therapy?
A. Laparoscopic salpingostomy
B. Methotrexate
C. Partial salpingectomy
D. Salpingectomy by laparotomy
Rationale: Methotrexate is the treatment of choice for unruptured ectopic
pregnancy with a mass less than 3.5 cm. It is a folic acid antagonist that destroys
the rapidly dividing trophoblastic tissue .
13. The prenatal clinic nurse assesses a woman at 15 weeks gestation. The
patient's blood pressure, measured twice at intervals 1 hour apart with a cuff
that fits appropriately, is 146/96 mm Hg. The nurse understands the patient
has which condition?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. Transient hypertension
Rationale: Chronic hypertension is defined as elevated blood pressure (≥140/90
mm Hg) before 20 weeks gestation. Gestational hypertension occurs after 20
weeks without proteinuria .
