NSG 3280 Exam 1 Prep | Latest Update 2026/2027 |
200 Practice Questions & Detailed Answers | Galen
College Nursing | A+ Graded
SECTION I: FOUNDATIONAL CONCEPTS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY (Questions 1–35)
1. A nursing student is reviewing the core concepts of pathophysiology. Which term describes the study
of the causes or origins of a disease?
A) Pathogenesis
B) Prognosis
C) Etiology
D) Clinical manifestation
Correct Answer: C) Etiology
Rationale: Etiology concerns the causes or contributing factors responsible for the development of a
disease or injury. Pathogenesis describes the development and progression of a disease, prognosis
refers to the predicted outcome, and clinical manifestations are the signs and symptoms produced by
the disease.
2. Which term describes the sequence of physiologic and pathologic events through which an etiologic
factor produces disease manifestations?
A) Pathogenesis
B) Etiology
C) Prognosis
D) Diagnosis
,Correct Answer: A) Pathogenesis
Rationale: Pathogenesis describes the development and evolution of a disease from its initial stimulus to
its ultimate expression or manifestations. Etiology identifies the cause rather than the subsequent
mechanism.
3. A patient develops a disorder for which the specific cause cannot be identified despite extensive
diagnostic evaluation. Which term should the nurse use to describe the etiology of this disorder?
A) Iatrogenic
B) Idiopathic
C) Congenital
D) Nosocomial
Correct Answer: B) Idiopathic
Rationale: A disorder with an unknown cause is classified as idiopathic. Iatrogenic conditions result from
medical treatment, congenital conditions are present at birth, and nosocomial infections are acquired in
healthcare settings.
4. A patient develops severe liver dysfunction after prolonged exposure to a medication known to cause
hepatic injury. Which classification best describes the cause of the patient's condition?
A) Idiopathic
B) Iatrogenic
C) Hereditary
,D) Degenerative
Correct Answer: B) Iatrogenic
Rationale: Iatrogenic conditions result from unintended or unwanted effects of medical treatment or
intervention, including medicationinduced injury.
5. Which statement best describes a risk factor?
A) It guarantees development of a disease
B) It increases the likelihood that a disease will occur
C) It identifies the exact cause of a disease
D) It is always a genetic abnormality
Correct Answer: B) It increases the likelihood that a disease will occur
Rationale: A risk factor increases the probability of developing a condition but does not guarantee that
the disease will occur.
6. A patient has an elevated temperature and reports chills. Which finding is a symptom rather than a
sign?
A) Temperature of 39°C (102.2°F)
B) Elevated heart rate
C) Chills
D) Elevated white blood cell count
, Correct Answer: C) Chills
Rationale: A symptom is subjectively experienced and reported by the patient, whereas signs are
objective findings that can be observed or measured. Chills are subjective; temperature, heart rate, and
WBC count are objective signs.
7. Which term describes a group of signs and symptoms that occur together but may not have a single
identified cause?
A) Syndrome
B) Pathogenesis
C) Prognosis
D) Etiology
Correct Answer: A) Syndrome
Rationale: A syndrome is a collection of signs and symptoms that occur together, and the etiology of the
signs and symptoms has not yet been determined.
8. A patient's disease has a latent period. What does this period represent?
A) The time from exposure to the first appearance of signs and symptoms
B) The period of greatest symptom severity
C) The recovery phase
D) The period of rehabilitation
200 Practice Questions & Detailed Answers | Galen
College Nursing | A+ Graded
SECTION I: FOUNDATIONAL CONCEPTS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY (Questions 1–35)
1. A nursing student is reviewing the core concepts of pathophysiology. Which term describes the study
of the causes or origins of a disease?
A) Pathogenesis
B) Prognosis
C) Etiology
D) Clinical manifestation
Correct Answer: C) Etiology
Rationale: Etiology concerns the causes or contributing factors responsible for the development of a
disease or injury. Pathogenesis describes the development and progression of a disease, prognosis
refers to the predicted outcome, and clinical manifestations are the signs and symptoms produced by
the disease.
2. Which term describes the sequence of physiologic and pathologic events through which an etiologic
factor produces disease manifestations?
A) Pathogenesis
B) Etiology
C) Prognosis
D) Diagnosis
,Correct Answer: A) Pathogenesis
Rationale: Pathogenesis describes the development and evolution of a disease from its initial stimulus to
its ultimate expression or manifestations. Etiology identifies the cause rather than the subsequent
mechanism.
3. A patient develops a disorder for which the specific cause cannot be identified despite extensive
diagnostic evaluation. Which term should the nurse use to describe the etiology of this disorder?
A) Iatrogenic
B) Idiopathic
C) Congenital
D) Nosocomial
Correct Answer: B) Idiopathic
Rationale: A disorder with an unknown cause is classified as idiopathic. Iatrogenic conditions result from
medical treatment, congenital conditions are present at birth, and nosocomial infections are acquired in
healthcare settings.
4. A patient develops severe liver dysfunction after prolonged exposure to a medication known to cause
hepatic injury. Which classification best describes the cause of the patient's condition?
A) Idiopathic
B) Iatrogenic
C) Hereditary
,D) Degenerative
Correct Answer: B) Iatrogenic
Rationale: Iatrogenic conditions result from unintended or unwanted effects of medical treatment or
intervention, including medicationinduced injury.
5. Which statement best describes a risk factor?
A) It guarantees development of a disease
B) It increases the likelihood that a disease will occur
C) It identifies the exact cause of a disease
D) It is always a genetic abnormality
Correct Answer: B) It increases the likelihood that a disease will occur
Rationale: A risk factor increases the probability of developing a condition but does not guarantee that
the disease will occur.
6. A patient has an elevated temperature and reports chills. Which finding is a symptom rather than a
sign?
A) Temperature of 39°C (102.2°F)
B) Elevated heart rate
C) Chills
D) Elevated white blood cell count
, Correct Answer: C) Chills
Rationale: A symptom is subjectively experienced and reported by the patient, whereas signs are
objective findings that can be observed or measured. Chills are subjective; temperature, heart rate, and
WBC count are objective signs.
7. Which term describes a group of signs and symptoms that occur together but may not have a single
identified cause?
A) Syndrome
B) Pathogenesis
C) Prognosis
D) Etiology
Correct Answer: A) Syndrome
Rationale: A syndrome is a collection of signs and symptoms that occur together, and the etiology of the
signs and symptoms has not yet been determined.
8. A patient's disease has a latent period. What does this period represent?
A) The time from exposure to the first appearance of signs and symptoms
B) The period of greatest symptom severity
C) The recovery phase
D) The period of rehabilitation
