Ati RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam
2026 | All Questions And Solutions
(Rationales) | Exam Prep Q&A 2026/2027
1. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who suddenly develops shortness of breath,
sharp chest pain, tachycardia, and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer.
B. Apply supplemental oxygen and activate the rapid response system.
C. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic.
D. Assist the client to ambulate to improve circulation.
The sudden onset of hypoxemia, dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia may indicate a
pulmonary embolism. The nurse should support oxygenation and urgently activate the
appropriate emergency response. Diagnostic testing and additional treatment should follow
stabilization.
2. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. The client's apical pulse is
54 beats/min. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication with food.
B. Give half the prescribed dose.
C. Reassess the pulse after ambulation.
D. Withhold the medication and notify the prescribing provider.
Digoxin can decrease heart rate, and bradycardia may indicate an adverse effect or increased
risk of toxicity. The nurse should withhold the dose and notify the provider according to the
prescription and facility protocol. The nurse should not independently alter the prescribed
dose.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is awake, sweating, and
shaky. The blood glucose level is 52 mg/dL. The client can swallow safely. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Give 15 g of a rapid-acting carbohydrate and recheck glucose in 15 minutes.
B. Administer the scheduled rapid-acting insulin.
C. Provide a high-fat snack and recheck glucose in one hour.
D. Restrict oral intake until the client stops sweating.
A conscious client who can swallow safely and has hypoglycemia should receive
approximately 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate. Recheck glucose after 15 minutes and repeat
,treatment if it remains below the target threshold. Once corrected, provide additional food if
needed based on the next meal and insulin schedule.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV antibiotic to a client. The client states, “The last
time I received an antibiotic, my throat became swollen, and I could not breathe.” What
should the nurse do first?
A. Administer the antibiotic slowly while monitoring the client.
B. Ask the client to sign a refusal form.
C. Hold the medication and clarify the allergy history and prescription with the provider.
D. Administer an antihistamine before giving the antibiotic.
Throat swelling and breathing difficulty suggest a potentially life-threatening allergic
reaction. The nurse must withhold the medication, assess the reported allergy, and clarify the
prescription before administration. Premedication does not make an unsafe medication
choice acceptable.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected stroke who developed facial drooping and
unilateral arm weakness 45 minutes ago. Which action is the priority?
A. Administer oral aspirin immediately.
B. Activate the stroke response protocol and establish the time the client was last known
well.
C. Offer water to assess swallowing ability.
D. Lower the head of the bed and wait for symptoms to resolve.
Acute stroke treatment is time-sensitive. Activating the stroke protocol and identifying the
last-known-well time help determine eligibility for urgent interventions. Oral medications,
food, and fluids must be withheld until swallowing safety is established, and antithrombotic
treatment requires appropriate evaluation and imaging.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who is
receiving prescribed oxygen. The client becomes increasingly drowsy and difficult to
arouse. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Remove the oxygen immediately.
B. Encourage the client to sleep.
C. Increase oxygen to the maximum flow rate without reassessment.
D. Assess airway, breathing, oxygenation, and ventilation, and obtain urgent clinical
assistance.
New or worsening drowsiness can indicate hypercapnia, hypoxemia, medication effects, or
respiratory failure. The nurse should immediately assess respiratory status and summon
urgent assistance. Oxygen should be titrated to the prescribed target, commonly 88% to 92%
,for clients at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure when that target is ordered, rather than
being abruptly discontinued.
7. A nurse is teaching a client who has been prescribed warfarin. Which statement by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. “I will keep my intake of vitamin K-containing foods reasonably consistent.”
B. “I can take aspirin whenever I develop a headache.”
C. “I will stop taking the medication whenever I notice bruising.”
D. “I do not need blood tests once my dose is established.”
Consistent vitamin K intake helps maintain a stable response to warfarin. The client needs
appropriate INR monitoring and should report unusual bleeding or bruising. Aspirin and other
medications that increase bleeding risk should be used only after consultation with the
prescribing clinician.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a potassium level of 6.4 mEq/L and peaked T
waves on the electrocardiogram. Which action should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods.
B. Administer an oral potassium supplement.
C. Initiate emergency cardiac monitoring and prepare for prescribed treatment to stabilize
the myocardium.
D. Recheck the potassium level during the next routine laboratory collection.
Severe hyperkalemia with electrocardiographic changes can precipitate fatal dysrhythmias.
Immediate cardiac monitoring and emergency treatment are necessary. IV calcium may be
prescribed to stabilize the cardiac membrane, while insulin with dextrose and other therapies
help lower serum potassium.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after
the transfusion begins, the client develops chills, lower back pain, and fever. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion and reassess in five minutes.
B. Stop the transfusion immediately and maintain IV access with normal saline using new
tubing.
C. Administer an antipyretic and continue the transfusion.
D. Flush the blood administration tubing with normal saline.
Fever, chills, and back pain may indicate an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The nurse
must stop the transfusion, maintain IV access with compatible fluid through new tubing,
assess the client, and notify the provider and blood bank according to protocol. The blood
product and tubing should be handled according to the reaction investigation procedure.
, 10. A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected Clostridioides difficile infection. Which
infection-control measure is most appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand rub as the only hand hygiene method after care.
B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room.
C. Use droplet precautions without gown or gloves.
D. Use contact precautions, wear a gown and gloves, and wash hands with soap and water.
C. difficile produces spores that can persist in the environment and are not reliably removed
by alcohol-based hand rubs. Contact precautions, appropriate environmental sporicidal
cleaning, and soap-and-water handwashing are important measures for reducing
transmission.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and suddenly develops severe
dyspnea, crackles throughout both lungs, and pink, frothy sputum. Which intervention
should the nurse implement first?
A. Position the client upright, support oxygenation, and activate urgent assistance.
B. Encourage oral fluid intake.
C. Place the client flat with the legs elevated.
D. Begin discharge teaching about daily weights.
These findings indicate acute pulmonary edema, a potentially life-threatening complication
of heart failure. Upright positioning reduces venous return and improves breathing, while
oxygenation support and urgent escalation facilitate rapid treatment. Prescribed diuretics
and other therapies may be required.
12. A nurse is preparing to administer rapid-acting insulin to a hospitalized client. The
meal tray has not arrived, and the client reports that the kitchen has delayed the meal.
What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the insulin and ask the client to wait for the meal.
B. Substitute the client's long-acting insulin for the prescribed dose.
C. Coordinate meal availability and follow the medication order and facility protocol before
administering the insulin.
D. Omit all insulin for the remainder of the day.
Rapid-acting insulin has a short onset and can cause hypoglycemia when food intake is
delayed. The nurse should coordinate administration with meal availability and follow the
prescribed timing and protocol. The nurse should not independently substitute insulin types or
omit future doses.
13. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage
system. The nurse observes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What should
the nurse do first?
2026 | All Questions And Solutions
(Rationales) | Exam Prep Q&A 2026/2027
1. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who suddenly develops shortness of breath,
sharp chest pain, tachycardia, and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer.
B. Apply supplemental oxygen and activate the rapid response system.
C. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic.
D. Assist the client to ambulate to improve circulation.
The sudden onset of hypoxemia, dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia may indicate a
pulmonary embolism. The nurse should support oxygenation and urgently activate the
appropriate emergency response. Diagnostic testing and additional treatment should follow
stabilization.
2. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. The client's apical pulse is
54 beats/min. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication with food.
B. Give half the prescribed dose.
C. Reassess the pulse after ambulation.
D. Withhold the medication and notify the prescribing provider.
Digoxin can decrease heart rate, and bradycardia may indicate an adverse effect or increased
risk of toxicity. The nurse should withhold the dose and notify the provider according to the
prescription and facility protocol. The nurse should not independently alter the prescribed
dose.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is awake, sweating, and
shaky. The blood glucose level is 52 mg/dL. The client can swallow safely. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Give 15 g of a rapid-acting carbohydrate and recheck glucose in 15 minutes.
B. Administer the scheduled rapid-acting insulin.
C. Provide a high-fat snack and recheck glucose in one hour.
D. Restrict oral intake until the client stops sweating.
A conscious client who can swallow safely and has hypoglycemia should receive
approximately 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate. Recheck glucose after 15 minutes and repeat
,treatment if it remains below the target threshold. Once corrected, provide additional food if
needed based on the next meal and insulin schedule.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV antibiotic to a client. The client states, “The last
time I received an antibiotic, my throat became swollen, and I could not breathe.” What
should the nurse do first?
A. Administer the antibiotic slowly while monitoring the client.
B. Ask the client to sign a refusal form.
C. Hold the medication and clarify the allergy history and prescription with the provider.
D. Administer an antihistamine before giving the antibiotic.
Throat swelling and breathing difficulty suggest a potentially life-threatening allergic
reaction. The nurse must withhold the medication, assess the reported allergy, and clarify the
prescription before administration. Premedication does not make an unsafe medication
choice acceptable.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected stroke who developed facial drooping and
unilateral arm weakness 45 minutes ago. Which action is the priority?
A. Administer oral aspirin immediately.
B. Activate the stroke response protocol and establish the time the client was last known
well.
C. Offer water to assess swallowing ability.
D. Lower the head of the bed and wait for symptoms to resolve.
Acute stroke treatment is time-sensitive. Activating the stroke protocol and identifying the
last-known-well time help determine eligibility for urgent interventions. Oral medications,
food, and fluids must be withheld until swallowing safety is established, and antithrombotic
treatment requires appropriate evaluation and imaging.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who is
receiving prescribed oxygen. The client becomes increasingly drowsy and difficult to
arouse. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Remove the oxygen immediately.
B. Encourage the client to sleep.
C. Increase oxygen to the maximum flow rate without reassessment.
D. Assess airway, breathing, oxygenation, and ventilation, and obtain urgent clinical
assistance.
New or worsening drowsiness can indicate hypercapnia, hypoxemia, medication effects, or
respiratory failure. The nurse should immediately assess respiratory status and summon
urgent assistance. Oxygen should be titrated to the prescribed target, commonly 88% to 92%
,for clients at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure when that target is ordered, rather than
being abruptly discontinued.
7. A nurse is teaching a client who has been prescribed warfarin. Which statement by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. “I will keep my intake of vitamin K-containing foods reasonably consistent.”
B. “I can take aspirin whenever I develop a headache.”
C. “I will stop taking the medication whenever I notice bruising.”
D. “I do not need blood tests once my dose is established.”
Consistent vitamin K intake helps maintain a stable response to warfarin. The client needs
appropriate INR monitoring and should report unusual bleeding or bruising. Aspirin and other
medications that increase bleeding risk should be used only after consultation with the
prescribing clinician.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a potassium level of 6.4 mEq/L and peaked T
waves on the electrocardiogram. Which action should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods.
B. Administer an oral potassium supplement.
C. Initiate emergency cardiac monitoring and prepare for prescribed treatment to stabilize
the myocardium.
D. Recheck the potassium level during the next routine laboratory collection.
Severe hyperkalemia with electrocardiographic changes can precipitate fatal dysrhythmias.
Immediate cardiac monitoring and emergency treatment are necessary. IV calcium may be
prescribed to stabilize the cardiac membrane, while insulin with dextrose and other therapies
help lower serum potassium.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after
the transfusion begins, the client develops chills, lower back pain, and fever. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion and reassess in five minutes.
B. Stop the transfusion immediately and maintain IV access with normal saline using new
tubing.
C. Administer an antipyretic and continue the transfusion.
D. Flush the blood administration tubing with normal saline.
Fever, chills, and back pain may indicate an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The nurse
must stop the transfusion, maintain IV access with compatible fluid through new tubing,
assess the client, and notify the provider and blood bank according to protocol. The blood
product and tubing should be handled according to the reaction investigation procedure.
, 10. A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected Clostridioides difficile infection. Which
infection-control measure is most appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand rub as the only hand hygiene method after care.
B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room.
C. Use droplet precautions without gown or gloves.
D. Use contact precautions, wear a gown and gloves, and wash hands with soap and water.
C. difficile produces spores that can persist in the environment and are not reliably removed
by alcohol-based hand rubs. Contact precautions, appropriate environmental sporicidal
cleaning, and soap-and-water handwashing are important measures for reducing
transmission.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and suddenly develops severe
dyspnea, crackles throughout both lungs, and pink, frothy sputum. Which intervention
should the nurse implement first?
A. Position the client upright, support oxygenation, and activate urgent assistance.
B. Encourage oral fluid intake.
C. Place the client flat with the legs elevated.
D. Begin discharge teaching about daily weights.
These findings indicate acute pulmonary edema, a potentially life-threatening complication
of heart failure. Upright positioning reduces venous return and improves breathing, while
oxygenation support and urgent escalation facilitate rapid treatment. Prescribed diuretics
and other therapies may be required.
12. A nurse is preparing to administer rapid-acting insulin to a hospitalized client. The
meal tray has not arrived, and the client reports that the kitchen has delayed the meal.
What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the insulin and ask the client to wait for the meal.
B. Substitute the client's long-acting insulin for the prescribed dose.
C. Coordinate meal availability and follow the medication order and facility protocol before
administering the insulin.
D. Omit all insulin for the remainder of the day.
Rapid-acting insulin has a short onset and can cause hypoglycemia when food intake is
delayed. The nurse should coordinate administration with meal availability and follow the
prescribed timing and protocol. The nurse should not independently substitute insulin types or
omit future doses.
13. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage
system. The nurse observes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What should
the nurse do first?
