Ati RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2026-
Best Predicted Questions And Answers | All
Questions And Solutions (Rationales) | Exam
Prep Q&A 2026/2027
Question 1. A registered nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops shortness of
breath, restlessness, and an oxygen saturation of 84% on room air. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Notify the health care provider and wait for further instructions.
B. Position the client upright, assess airway and breathing, and initiate oxygen according to
protocol.
C. Obtain a complete set of routine vital signs before intervening.
D. Administer the client's scheduled medication.
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute hypoxemia is an immediate threat to life. The nurse should rapidly assess
and support airway and breathing, provide oxygen as indicated, and activate emergency
assistance if the client remains unstable. Routine tasks must not delay stabilization.
Question 2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client with heart failure.
The client's apical pulse is 52 beats/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the medication with food.
B. Recheck the pulse after the client walks for five minutes.
C. Administer half the prescribed dose.
D. Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider according to the prescribed
parameters.
Answer: D
Rationale: Digoxin can further decrease heart rate. An adult apical pulse below 60 beats/min
commonly warrants withholding the dose and notifying the provider, subject to the
,prescription and clinical protocol. The nurse should also assess for signs of digoxin toxicity and
electrolyte abnormalities.
Question 3. A nurse receives handoff reports on four clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client with pneumonia who has new confusion and an oxygen saturation of 88%.
B. A client with diabetes mellitus whose premeal blood glucose is 186 mg/dL.
C. A client two days after surgery who reports incisional pain rated 6 out of 10.
D. A client with chronic arthritis requesting assistance with bathing.
Answer: A
Rationale: New confusion and hypoxemia may indicate inadequate oxygen delivery,
respiratory deterioration, or sepsis. This client requires immediate assessment and
intervention. The other clients have needs that are important but do not take priority over an
acute threat to oxygenation.
Question 4. A nurse is administering intravenous potassium chloride to a client with
hypokalemia. Which action is appropriate?
A. Administer the medication by rapid intravenous push.
B. Mix the medication with any available intravenous solution without checking compatibility.
C. Administer the prescribed diluted solution using an infusion pump according to institutional
policy.
D. Increase the infusion rate whenever the client reports muscle weakness.
Answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous potassium must be diluted and infused at a controlled rate. Rapid
administration or an intravenous push can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should
verify renal function, potassium levels, infusion access, and prescribed monitoring
requirements.
Question 5. A nurse enters the room of a client who is receiving a blood transfusion and
observes chills, fever, and new lower back pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Slow the transfusion and reassess the temperature in 15 minutes.
B. Stop the transfusion immediately.
,C. Administer an antipyretic and continue the transfusion.
D. Discard the blood bag before notifying anyone.
Answer: B
Rationale: Fever, chills, and back pain during a transfusion may indicate an acute hemolytic
reaction. The nurse must stop the transfusion, maintain intravenous access with compatible
normal saline using new tubing according to policy, assess the client, and notify the provider
and blood bank. Required identification checks and reaction investigations must follow.
Question 6. A nurse is caring for a client who has Clostridioides difficile infection with
frequent watery stools. Which infection-control measure is most appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer as the sole hand hygiene method after every contact.
B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room.
C. Wear a surgical mask but no gloves when providing direct care.
D. Use contact precautions, appropriate gown and gloves, and soap-and-water handwashing
according to facility policy.
Answer: D
Rationale: C. difficile produces spores that can persist in the environment. Contact
precautions, appropriate environmental sporicidal cleaning, and soap-and-water
handwashing are important measures for controlling transmission. Alcohol-based hand rub
alone is not reliable against these spores.
Question 7. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which
statement by the client demonstrates correct understanding?
A. "I will keep my intake of vitamin K-containing foods reasonably consistent."
B. "I can stop taking the medication whenever my bruising disappears."
C. "I should double the next dose if I forget to take today's dose."
D. "I do not need blood tests once my dose has been established."
Answer: A
Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake helps maintain a stable response to warfarin. The
client requires INR monitoring, should report significant bleeding, and should not
, independently stop, double, or adjust doses. New medications and supplements must also be
checked for interactions.
Question 8. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypoglycemia. The client is
conscious, can swallow safely, and has a blood glucose level of 54 mg/dL. Which
intervention is appropriate?
A. Administer the scheduled long-acting insulin immediately.
B. Restrict oral intake until the next meal.
C. Give approximately 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes.
D. Encourage the client to walk to increase circulation.
Answer: C
Rationale: A conscious client who can swallow safely should receive fast-acting carbohydrate
for hypoglycemia. Blood glucose is rechecked after approximately 15 minutes, and treatment
is repeated if it remains low. If the client cannot swallow safely, oral carbohydrate must be
avoided and an appropriate emergency treatment used.
Question 9. A postoperative client suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and
shortness of breath. The nurse suspects pulmonary embolism. Which action is the priority?
A. Assist the client to ambulate to improve circulation.
B. Apply oxygen as indicated, assess respiratory and circulatory status, and activate urgent
medical assistance.
C. Massage the client's lower extremities.
D. Encourage oral fluids and reassess in one hour.
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, tachycardia, and dyspnea after surgery may indicate a life-
threatening pulmonary embolism. Immediate cardiopulmonary assessment and emergency
escalation are necessary. Ambulation and leg massage are inappropriate during suspected
acute embolism.
Question 10. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client with diabetes
mellitus. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Administer it at bedtime regardless of food intake.
Best Predicted Questions And Answers | All
Questions And Solutions (Rationales) | Exam
Prep Q&A 2026/2027
Question 1. A registered nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops shortness of
breath, restlessness, and an oxygen saturation of 84% on room air. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Notify the health care provider and wait for further instructions.
B. Position the client upright, assess airway and breathing, and initiate oxygen according to
protocol.
C. Obtain a complete set of routine vital signs before intervening.
D. Administer the client's scheduled medication.
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute hypoxemia is an immediate threat to life. The nurse should rapidly assess
and support airway and breathing, provide oxygen as indicated, and activate emergency
assistance if the client remains unstable. Routine tasks must not delay stabilization.
Question 2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client with heart failure.
The client's apical pulse is 52 beats/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the medication with food.
B. Recheck the pulse after the client walks for five minutes.
C. Administer half the prescribed dose.
D. Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider according to the prescribed
parameters.
Answer: D
Rationale: Digoxin can further decrease heart rate. An adult apical pulse below 60 beats/min
commonly warrants withholding the dose and notifying the provider, subject to the
,prescription and clinical protocol. The nurse should also assess for signs of digoxin toxicity and
electrolyte abnormalities.
Question 3. A nurse receives handoff reports on four clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client with pneumonia who has new confusion and an oxygen saturation of 88%.
B. A client with diabetes mellitus whose premeal blood glucose is 186 mg/dL.
C. A client two days after surgery who reports incisional pain rated 6 out of 10.
D. A client with chronic arthritis requesting assistance with bathing.
Answer: A
Rationale: New confusion and hypoxemia may indicate inadequate oxygen delivery,
respiratory deterioration, or sepsis. This client requires immediate assessment and
intervention. The other clients have needs that are important but do not take priority over an
acute threat to oxygenation.
Question 4. A nurse is administering intravenous potassium chloride to a client with
hypokalemia. Which action is appropriate?
A. Administer the medication by rapid intravenous push.
B. Mix the medication with any available intravenous solution without checking compatibility.
C. Administer the prescribed diluted solution using an infusion pump according to institutional
policy.
D. Increase the infusion rate whenever the client reports muscle weakness.
Answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous potassium must be diluted and infused at a controlled rate. Rapid
administration or an intravenous push can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should
verify renal function, potassium levels, infusion access, and prescribed monitoring
requirements.
Question 5. A nurse enters the room of a client who is receiving a blood transfusion and
observes chills, fever, and new lower back pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Slow the transfusion and reassess the temperature in 15 minutes.
B. Stop the transfusion immediately.
,C. Administer an antipyretic and continue the transfusion.
D. Discard the blood bag before notifying anyone.
Answer: B
Rationale: Fever, chills, and back pain during a transfusion may indicate an acute hemolytic
reaction. The nurse must stop the transfusion, maintain intravenous access with compatible
normal saline using new tubing according to policy, assess the client, and notify the provider
and blood bank. Required identification checks and reaction investigations must follow.
Question 6. A nurse is caring for a client who has Clostridioides difficile infection with
frequent watery stools. Which infection-control measure is most appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer as the sole hand hygiene method after every contact.
B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room.
C. Wear a surgical mask but no gloves when providing direct care.
D. Use contact precautions, appropriate gown and gloves, and soap-and-water handwashing
according to facility policy.
Answer: D
Rationale: C. difficile produces spores that can persist in the environment. Contact
precautions, appropriate environmental sporicidal cleaning, and soap-and-water
handwashing are important measures for controlling transmission. Alcohol-based hand rub
alone is not reliable against these spores.
Question 7. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which
statement by the client demonstrates correct understanding?
A. "I will keep my intake of vitamin K-containing foods reasonably consistent."
B. "I can stop taking the medication whenever my bruising disappears."
C. "I should double the next dose if I forget to take today's dose."
D. "I do not need blood tests once my dose has been established."
Answer: A
Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake helps maintain a stable response to warfarin. The
client requires INR monitoring, should report significant bleeding, and should not
, independently stop, double, or adjust doses. New medications and supplements must also be
checked for interactions.
Question 8. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypoglycemia. The client is
conscious, can swallow safely, and has a blood glucose level of 54 mg/dL. Which
intervention is appropriate?
A. Administer the scheduled long-acting insulin immediately.
B. Restrict oral intake until the next meal.
C. Give approximately 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes.
D. Encourage the client to walk to increase circulation.
Answer: C
Rationale: A conscious client who can swallow safely should receive fast-acting carbohydrate
for hypoglycemia. Blood glucose is rechecked after approximately 15 minutes, and treatment
is repeated if it remains low. If the client cannot swallow safely, oral carbohydrate must be
avoided and an appropriate emergency treatment used.
Question 9. A postoperative client suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and
shortness of breath. The nurse suspects pulmonary embolism. Which action is the priority?
A. Assist the client to ambulate to improve circulation.
B. Apply oxygen as indicated, assess respiratory and circulatory status, and activate urgent
medical assistance.
C. Massage the client's lower extremities.
D. Encourage oral fluids and reassess in one hour.
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, tachycardia, and dyspnea after surgery may indicate a life-
threatening pulmonary embolism. Immediate cardiopulmonary assessment and emergency
escalation are necessary. Ambulation and leg massage are inappropriate during suspected
acute embolism.
Question 10. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client with diabetes
mellitus. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Administer it at bedtime regardless of food intake.
