PHTLS Pre & Post – UPDATED Questions with 100% Verified
Answers
PHTLS Pre & Post
Study Questions and Answers
Q1 The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both temporarily and permanently, is known
as:
A) Conization
B) Cavitation
C) Crepitation
D) Contusion
A B. Cavitation
Q2 The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due to energy exchange is:
A) Mass of the bodies involved
B) Velocity of the bodies involved
C) Density of the tissues involved
D) Surface area of the impact involved
A B. Velocity of the bodies involved
Q3 In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as Ringer's, are preferred because:
A) The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders
B) These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance volume
C) These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W
D) Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues
A C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W
Q4 With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline for determining a critical fall?
A) 3 times the height of the patient
B) 2 times the height of the patient
C) 5 times the height of the patient
D) 1 ½ times the height of the patient
A A. 3 times the height of the patient
Q5 The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are squeezed and may rupture is called the
__________ phase.
A) Tertiary phase
B) Quaternary phase
C) Secondary phase
D) Primary phase
PHTLS Pre & Post 1
, A D. Primary phase
Q6 During the primary survey and management of a trauma patient, the E in ABCDE stands for _________?
A) Edema
B) Eyes & ears
C) Expose/Environment
D) Electrical therapy
A C. Expose/Environment
Q7 The time in which surgical intervention can make a difference in patient outcome is the __________?
A) Golden period
B) Golden time
C) Golden era
D) Golden minutes
A A. Golden period (hour)
Q8 In the absence of extenuating circumstances, the maximum amount of time it should take to identify and
manage immediate threats to life, prepare the patient for transport and begin transport is _________?
A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 30 minutes
A B. 10 minutes
Q9 In which of the following situations is the use of a short spinal immobilization device indicated?
A) 28 year old male, unrestrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake, asks repeatedly what happened,
complains of a headache, has a hematoma on his forehead. BP 122/84, HR 92, VR 20.
B) 40 year old female who was pushed down a flight of stairs and is lying prone on the landing between two
flights of stairs, complaining of back pain. BP 118/78, HR 100, VR 20.
C) 17 year old female, restrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake, pale and diaphoretic, complains of
upper right quadrant abdominal pain. BP 100/70, HR 108, VR 20.
D) None of the above
A D. None of the above
Q10 Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver of a vehicle that has been involved in a frontal impact
with a concrete bridge abutment. The patient is awake, but has difficulty answering questions due to
shortness of breath. His ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. Of the following choices, when is the first time the
patient's breath sounds should be checked?
A) As soon as he is removed from the vehicle
B) Prior to being removed from the vehicle
C) As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard
D) Enroute to the trauma center
A B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle
PHTLS Pre & Post 2
, Q11 Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult?
A) Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute
B) Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute
C) Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute
D) Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute
A D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute
Q12 Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube placement?
A) Pulse oximetry
B) End-tidal capnometry
C) Syringe aspiration
D) None of the above
A D. None of the above
Q13 When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung inflation
time, in seconds, is:
A) 1:4
B) 1:5
C) 1:2
D) 2:2
A A. 1:4
Q14 Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually triggered oxygen powered device for
ventilation?
A) Gastric distention
B) Pneumothorax
C) Inability to feel lung compliance
D) All of the above
A D. All of the above
Q15 Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill?
A) Needle cricothyroidotomy
B) Endotracheal intubation
C) Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
D) Retrograde endotracheal intubation
A C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
Q16 Pericardial tamponade is most likely to occur in which of the following situations?
A) Stab wound to the chest
B) Fall from a height
C) Frontal impact vehicle crash
D) Gunshot wound to the chest
A A. Stab wound to the chest
PHTLS Pre & Post 3
Answers
PHTLS Pre & Post
Study Questions and Answers
Q1 The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both temporarily and permanently, is known
as:
A) Conization
B) Cavitation
C) Crepitation
D) Contusion
A B. Cavitation
Q2 The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due to energy exchange is:
A) Mass of the bodies involved
B) Velocity of the bodies involved
C) Density of the tissues involved
D) Surface area of the impact involved
A B. Velocity of the bodies involved
Q3 In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as Ringer's, are preferred because:
A) The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act as volume expanders
B) These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascular space to enhance volume
C) These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W
D) Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues
A C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space longer than water solutions, such as D5W
Q4 With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the following is a guideline for determining a critical fall?
A) 3 times the height of the patient
B) 2 times the height of the patient
C) 5 times the height of the patient
D) 1 ½ times the height of the patient
A A. 3 times the height of the patient
Q5 The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow organs are squeezed and may rupture is called the
__________ phase.
A) Tertiary phase
B) Quaternary phase
C) Secondary phase
D) Primary phase
PHTLS Pre & Post 1
, A D. Primary phase
Q6 During the primary survey and management of a trauma patient, the E in ABCDE stands for _________?
A) Edema
B) Eyes & ears
C) Expose/Environment
D) Electrical therapy
A C. Expose/Environment
Q7 The time in which surgical intervention can make a difference in patient outcome is the __________?
A) Golden period
B) Golden time
C) Golden era
D) Golden minutes
A A. Golden period (hour)
Q8 In the absence of extenuating circumstances, the maximum amount of time it should take to identify and
manage immediate threats to life, prepare the patient for transport and begin transport is _________?
A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 30 minutes
A B. 10 minutes
Q9 In which of the following situations is the use of a short spinal immobilization device indicated?
A) 28 year old male, unrestrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake, asks repeatedly what happened,
complains of a headache, has a hematoma on his forehead. BP 122/84, HR 92, VR 20.
B) 40 year old female who was pushed down a flight of stairs and is lying prone on the landing between two
flights of stairs, complaining of back pain. BP 118/78, HR 100, VR 20.
C) 17 year old female, restrained driver in a frontal impact crash. Awake, pale and diaphoretic, complains of
upper right quadrant abdominal pain. BP 100/70, HR 108, VR 20.
D) None of the above
A D. None of the above
Q10 Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver of a vehicle that has been involved in a frontal impact
with a concrete bridge abutment. The patient is awake, but has difficulty answering questions due to
shortness of breath. His ventilatory rate is 30 per minute. Of the following choices, when is the first time the
patient's breath sounds should be checked?
A) As soon as he is removed from the vehicle
B) Prior to being removed from the vehicle
C) As soon as he is immobilized on a long backboard
D) Enroute to the trauma center
A B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle
PHTLS Pre & Post 2
, Q11 Which of the following represents adequate spontaneous ventilation in an adult?
A) Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute
B) Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute
C) Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute
D) Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute
A D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute
Q12 Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying endotracheal tube placement?
A) Pulse oximetry
B) End-tidal capnometry
C) Syringe aspiration
D) None of the above
A D. None of the above
Q13 When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventilation, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung inflation
time, in seconds, is:
A) 1:4
B) 1:5
C) 1:2
D) 2:2
A A. 1:4
Q14 Which of the following is a possible complication of using a manually triggered oxygen powered device for
ventilation?
A) Gastric distention
B) Pneumothorax
C) Inability to feel lung compliance
D) All of the above
A D. All of the above
Q15 Which of the following procedures is considered an essential airway skill?
A) Needle cricothyroidotomy
B) Endotracheal intubation
C) Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
D) Retrograde endotracheal intubation
A C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
Q16 Pericardial tamponade is most likely to occur in which of the following situations?
A) Stab wound to the chest
B) Fall from a height
C) Frontal impact vehicle crash
D) Gunshot wound to the chest
A A. Stab wound to the chest
PHTLS Pre & Post 3
