NCLEX RN Cardiovascular Medications
Practice Exam 100 Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026
1. A client taking digoxin has an apical pulse of 52/min. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed
B. Give the medication with food
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Recheck the pulse in 4 hours
Answer: Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. An apical pulse below 60/min in an
adult is generally a reason to withhold digoxin and notify the provider. 2.
Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperchloremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Low potassium increases myocardial sensitivity to digoxin and
significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
3. Which finding is most concerning in a client receiving digoxin?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Increased appetite
C. Yellow-green visual disturbances
D. Increased urine output
,Answer: Yellow-green visual disturbances
Rationale: Visual changes, especially yellow or green halos, can indicate
digoxin toxicity and require prompt evaluation.
4. A client prescribed furosemide should be monitored most closely for
which laboratory value?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium only
C. Hemoglobin
D. Platelet count
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium
loss, increasing the risk of dysrhythmias.
5. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce afterload in a client
with heart failure?
A. Lisinopril
B. Digoxin
C. Atropine
D. Adenosine
Answer: Lisinopril
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that decreases angiotensin II
formation, producing vasodilation and reducing afterload.
6. Which adverse effect of lisinopril requires immediate attention?
A. Mild headache
B. Dry cough
C. Angioedema
D. Increased appetite
Answer: Angioedema
Rationale: Angioedema can cause airway obstruction and is a potentially
lifethreatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors.
, 7. Which laboratory value is particularly important to monitor in a client
taking lisinopril?
A. Potassium
B. Platelets
C. Bilirubin
D. Hemoglobin
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase serum potassium, particularly in clients
with renal impairment or those taking potassium supplements.
8. A client taking warfarin is prescribed for atrial fibrillation. Which
laboratory test is used to monitor therapy?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Troponin
D. BNP
Answer: INR
Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is used to monitor the
therapeutic effect of warfarin.
9. Which medication is an anticoagulant?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Warfarin
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Metoprolol
Answer: Warfarin
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K–dependent clotting factors and is used
to prevent thromboembolic events.
10. A client taking warfarin should be taught to report which finding?
A. Mild thirst
B. Unusual bleeding
C. Increased appetite
, D. Occasional sneezing
Answer: Unusual bleeding
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk. Clients should report bleeding
gums, nosebleeds, blood in urine or stool, or unexplained bruising.
11. Which medication is a beta-adrenergic blocker?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Furosemide
D. Losartan
Answer: Metoprolol
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-1 selective blocker that decreases heart rate,
contractility, and blood pressure.
12. Before administering metoprolol, which assessment is most important?
A. Respiratory rate only
B. Apical pulse and blood pressure
C. Bowel sounds
D. Pupillary response
Answer: Apical pulse and blood pressure
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so heart rate
and blood pressure should be assessed before administration.
13. A client taking propranolol should be monitored carefully because this
medication may mask symptoms of:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Infection
D. Dehydration
Answer: Hypoglycemia
Rationale: Beta blockers can mask adrenergic manifestations of
hypoglycemia, such as tachycardia and tremors.
Practice Exam 100 Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026
1. A client taking digoxin has an apical pulse of 52/min. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed
B. Give the medication with food
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Recheck the pulse in 4 hours
Answer: Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. An apical pulse below 60/min in an
adult is generally a reason to withhold digoxin and notify the provider. 2.
Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperchloremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Low potassium increases myocardial sensitivity to digoxin and
significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
3. Which finding is most concerning in a client receiving digoxin?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Increased appetite
C. Yellow-green visual disturbances
D. Increased urine output
,Answer: Yellow-green visual disturbances
Rationale: Visual changes, especially yellow or green halos, can indicate
digoxin toxicity and require prompt evaluation.
4. A client prescribed furosemide should be monitored most closely for
which laboratory value?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium only
C. Hemoglobin
D. Platelet count
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium
loss, increasing the risk of dysrhythmias.
5. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce afterload in a client
with heart failure?
A. Lisinopril
B. Digoxin
C. Atropine
D. Adenosine
Answer: Lisinopril
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that decreases angiotensin II
formation, producing vasodilation and reducing afterload.
6. Which adverse effect of lisinopril requires immediate attention?
A. Mild headache
B. Dry cough
C. Angioedema
D. Increased appetite
Answer: Angioedema
Rationale: Angioedema can cause airway obstruction and is a potentially
lifethreatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors.
, 7. Which laboratory value is particularly important to monitor in a client
taking lisinopril?
A. Potassium
B. Platelets
C. Bilirubin
D. Hemoglobin
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase serum potassium, particularly in clients
with renal impairment or those taking potassium supplements.
8. A client taking warfarin is prescribed for atrial fibrillation. Which
laboratory test is used to monitor therapy?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Troponin
D. BNP
Answer: INR
Rationale: The international normalized ratio (INR) is used to monitor the
therapeutic effect of warfarin.
9. Which medication is an anticoagulant?
A. Atorvastatin
B. Warfarin
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Metoprolol
Answer: Warfarin
Rationale: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K–dependent clotting factors and is used
to prevent thromboembolic events.
10. A client taking warfarin should be taught to report which finding?
A. Mild thirst
B. Unusual bleeding
C. Increased appetite
, D. Occasional sneezing
Answer: Unusual bleeding
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk. Clients should report bleeding
gums, nosebleeds, blood in urine or stool, or unexplained bruising.
11. Which medication is a beta-adrenergic blocker?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Furosemide
D. Losartan
Answer: Metoprolol
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-1 selective blocker that decreases heart rate,
contractility, and blood pressure.
12. Before administering metoprolol, which assessment is most important?
A. Respiratory rate only
B. Apical pulse and blood pressure
C. Bowel sounds
D. Pupillary response
Answer: Apical pulse and blood pressure
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so heart rate
and blood pressure should be assessed before administration.
13. A client taking propranolol should be monitored carefully because this
medication may mask symptoms of:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Infection
D. Dehydration
Answer: Hypoglycemia
Rationale: Beta blockers can mask adrenergic manifestations of
hypoglycemia, such as tachycardia and tremors.
