RCS Intercollegiate Specialty
Board Examination in
Trauma and Orthopaedic
Surgery Exam
,QUESTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS
Question 1
A discussion must address “carpal tunnel syndrome” as well as “triangular fibrocartilage complex
(TFCC) tears”. Which topic provides the closest fit?
A. Foot and Ankle
B. Hand and Microvascular Surgery
C. Shoulder and Clavicle
D. Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist
Correct Answer: D
Full Explanation:
Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist addresses “Kienböck's disease, scaphoid non-union, and carpal tunnel
syndrome”. Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist addresses “Distal radius fractures, carpal instability (scapholunate
dissociation, perilunate dislocations), and triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) tears”. These
requirements share the focus of Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist; choosing another area would change the
subject rather than connect the two issues.
Question 2
For the issue “staging systems (Enneking/MSTS)”, which topic-to-issue pairing remains correctly
aligned?
A. The issue is considered within Pediatric musculoskeletal conditions.
B. The issue is considered within Musculoskeletal oncology.
C. The issue is considered within Principles of musculoskeletal infection.
D. The issue is considered within Metabolic bone diseases.
Correct Answer: B
Full Explanation:
Musculoskeletal oncology addresses “benign and malignant bone tumors, soft tissue sarcomas,
metastatic bone disease, and staging systems (Enneking/MSTS)”. This links the issue to its most specific
stated focus. Pediatric musculoskeletal conditions instead addresses “Perthes' disease”, which is a
different requirement.
Question 3
A response to a brief on “Knee and Soft Tissue Knee” discusses “mucous cysts” instead of the
requested “Meniscal tears”. Which focus has the response moved into?
A. Foot and Ankle
B. Hand and Microvascular Surgery
C. Knee and Soft Tissue Knee
D. Rotator cuff pathology
Correct Answer: B
Full Explanation:
Knee and Soft Tissue Knee addresses “Meniscal tears, repair techniques, and meniscectomy principles”.
Hand and Microvascular Surgery addresses “Dupuytren's disease, trigger finger, de Quervain's
tenosynovitis, and mucous cysts”. The issue actually discussed corresponds to Hand and Microvascular
Surgery; naming Knee and Soft Tissue Knee in the brief does not make a different subject responsive to it.
2
,QUESTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS
Question 4
Which issue belongs most directly in an assessment centered on “Compartment syndrome”?
A. Proximal femur fractures (neck of femur, intertrochanteric, subtrochanteric) and fixation/arthroplasty
thresholds
B. urgent fasciotomy techniques
C. deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
D. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM) and cervical radiculopathy (pathophysiology, clinical
presentation, and surgical decompression/fusion)
Correct Answer: B
Full Explanation:
Compartment syndrome addresses “pathophysiology, diagnosis, monitoring, and urgent fasciotomy
techniques”. By contrast, “deep vein thrombosis (DVT)” belongs to the focus of Complications of trauma.
The distinction is the subject being assessed, not the importance of the other issues.
Question 5
Assess these two topic assignments. I: “patellofemoral alignment disorders” is assigned to
“Shoulder and Clavicle”. II: “Bankart lesions” is assigned to “Shoulder instability”. Which
assessment is correct?
A. Both assignments are correct.
B. Only assignment II is correct.
C. Only assignment I is correct.
D. Neither assignment is correct.
Correct Answer: B
Full Explanation:
Knee and Soft Tissue Knee addresses “Patellofemoral instability, recurrent dislocations, and
patellofemoral alignment disorders”. Shoulder instability addresses “traumatic anterior/posterior
dislocations, Bankart lesions, Hill-Sachs lesions, and multidirectional instability”. Assignment I is incorrect
because its focus changes the first association. Assignment II is correct for the corresponding second
association.
Question 6
Three concerns need separate focuses: I: “Damage control orthopaedics (DCO) vs. early total care
(ETC) decision-making in borderline polytrauma patients”; II: “alignment philosophies”; III:
“patellofemoral alignment disorders”. Which allocation correctly preserves all three associations?
A. I: General Principles of Trauma; II: Knee osteoarthritis; III: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee.
B. I: Knee osteoarthritis; II: General Principles of Trauma; III: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee.
C. I: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee; II: Knee osteoarthritis; III: General Principles of Trauma.
D. I: General Principles of Trauma; II: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee; III: Knee osteoarthritis.
Correct Answer: A
Full Explanation:
“Damage control orthopaedics (DCO) vs. early total care (ETC) decision-making in borderline polytrauma
patients” concerns General Principles of Trauma; “alignment philosophies” concerns Knee osteoarthritis;
and “patellofemoral alignment disorders” concerns Knee and Soft Tissue Knee. The correct allocation
keeps all three distinct. Each other allocation exchanges two focuses and therefore changes two of the
required associations.
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, QUESTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS
Question 7
For I: “scaphoid non-union” and II: “compartment syndrome of the upper limb”, which paired
classification is the most appropriate?
A. I: Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist. II: Hand and Microvascular Surgery.
B. I: Hand and Microvascular Surgery. II: Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist.
C. I: Shoulder instability. II: Hand and Microvascular Surgery.
D. I: Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist. II: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee.
Correct Answer: A
Full Explanation:
Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist addresses “Kienböck's disease, scaphoid non-union, and carpal tunnel
syndrome”. Hand and Microvascular Surgery addresses “Hand infections, high-pressure injection injuries,
and compartment syndrome of the upper limb”. The correct pairing retains both associations; exchanging
the focuses or replacing one loses at least one of the stated requirements.
Question 8
An assessment centered on “Axial and Appendicular Trauma” considers “Diaphyseal and
periarticular fractures of the femur” and “fibula (including tibial plateau and pilon fractures)”. Which
third issue would keep the discussion within that focus?
A. fracture-dislocations
B. posterolateral rotatory instability and collateral ligament injuries
C. Pelvic ring injuries (Tile / Young-Burgess classifications) and acetabular fractures (Judet-Letournel
classification)
D. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
Correct Answer: C
Full Explanation:
Axial and Appendicular Trauma addresses “Diaphyseal and periarticular fractures of the femur, tibia, and
fibula (including tibial plateau and pilon fractures)”. Axial and Appendicular Trauma addresses “Pelvic ring
injuries (Tile / Young-Burgess classifications) and acetabular fractures (Judet-Letournel classification)”. All
three considerations belong to the Axial and Appendicular Trauma focus. The alternatives instead
introduce Elbow instability, Ligamentous injuries, or Thoracolumbar trauma.
Question 9
Which proposed expansion of a discussion on “humeral shaft” stays within “Upper limb trauma”,
rather than introducing the separate focus of “Hand and Microvascular Surgery”?
A. Replace the discussion with inflammatory arthropathies.
B. Redirect the discussion to spinal cord injury protocols.
C. Add consideration of Osteoarthritis of the hand and wrist (basal joint arthritis / thumb
carpometacarpal arthritis).
D. Add consideration of forearm fractures.
Correct Answer: D
Full Explanation:
Upper limb trauma addresses “proximal humerus, humeral shaft, distal humerus, olecranon, and forearm
fractures”. Hand and Microvascular Surgery addresses “Osteoarthritis of the hand and wrist (basal joint
arthritis / thumb carpometacarpal arthritis)”. The aligned addition develops the original Upper limb
trauma focus instead of replacing it.
4
Board Examination in
Trauma and Orthopaedic
Surgery Exam
,QUESTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS
Question 1
A discussion must address “carpal tunnel syndrome” as well as “triangular fibrocartilage complex
(TFCC) tears”. Which topic provides the closest fit?
A. Foot and Ankle
B. Hand and Microvascular Surgery
C. Shoulder and Clavicle
D. Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist
Correct Answer: D
Full Explanation:
Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist addresses “Kienböck's disease, scaphoid non-union, and carpal tunnel
syndrome”. Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist addresses “Distal radius fractures, carpal instability (scapholunate
dissociation, perilunate dislocations), and triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) tears”. These
requirements share the focus of Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist; choosing another area would change the
subject rather than connect the two issues.
Question 2
For the issue “staging systems (Enneking/MSTS)”, which topic-to-issue pairing remains correctly
aligned?
A. The issue is considered within Pediatric musculoskeletal conditions.
B. The issue is considered within Musculoskeletal oncology.
C. The issue is considered within Principles of musculoskeletal infection.
D. The issue is considered within Metabolic bone diseases.
Correct Answer: B
Full Explanation:
Musculoskeletal oncology addresses “benign and malignant bone tumors, soft tissue sarcomas,
metastatic bone disease, and staging systems (Enneking/MSTS)”. This links the issue to its most specific
stated focus. Pediatric musculoskeletal conditions instead addresses “Perthes' disease”, which is a
different requirement.
Question 3
A response to a brief on “Knee and Soft Tissue Knee” discusses “mucous cysts” instead of the
requested “Meniscal tears”. Which focus has the response moved into?
A. Foot and Ankle
B. Hand and Microvascular Surgery
C. Knee and Soft Tissue Knee
D. Rotator cuff pathology
Correct Answer: B
Full Explanation:
Knee and Soft Tissue Knee addresses “Meniscal tears, repair techniques, and meniscectomy principles”.
Hand and Microvascular Surgery addresses “Dupuytren's disease, trigger finger, de Quervain's
tenosynovitis, and mucous cysts”. The issue actually discussed corresponds to Hand and Microvascular
Surgery; naming Knee and Soft Tissue Knee in the brief does not make a different subject responsive to it.
2
,QUESTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS
Question 4
Which issue belongs most directly in an assessment centered on “Compartment syndrome”?
A. Proximal femur fractures (neck of femur, intertrochanteric, subtrochanteric) and fixation/arthroplasty
thresholds
B. urgent fasciotomy techniques
C. deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
D. Cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM) and cervical radiculopathy (pathophysiology, clinical
presentation, and surgical decompression/fusion)
Correct Answer: B
Full Explanation:
Compartment syndrome addresses “pathophysiology, diagnosis, monitoring, and urgent fasciotomy
techniques”. By contrast, “deep vein thrombosis (DVT)” belongs to the focus of Complications of trauma.
The distinction is the subject being assessed, not the importance of the other issues.
Question 5
Assess these two topic assignments. I: “patellofemoral alignment disorders” is assigned to
“Shoulder and Clavicle”. II: “Bankart lesions” is assigned to “Shoulder instability”. Which
assessment is correct?
A. Both assignments are correct.
B. Only assignment II is correct.
C. Only assignment I is correct.
D. Neither assignment is correct.
Correct Answer: B
Full Explanation:
Knee and Soft Tissue Knee addresses “Patellofemoral instability, recurrent dislocations, and
patellofemoral alignment disorders”. Shoulder instability addresses “traumatic anterior/posterior
dislocations, Bankart lesions, Hill-Sachs lesions, and multidirectional instability”. Assignment I is incorrect
because its focus changes the first association. Assignment II is correct for the corresponding second
association.
Question 6
Three concerns need separate focuses: I: “Damage control orthopaedics (DCO) vs. early total care
(ETC) decision-making in borderline polytrauma patients”; II: “alignment philosophies”; III:
“patellofemoral alignment disorders”. Which allocation correctly preserves all three associations?
A. I: General Principles of Trauma; II: Knee osteoarthritis; III: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee.
B. I: Knee osteoarthritis; II: General Principles of Trauma; III: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee.
C. I: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee; II: Knee osteoarthritis; III: General Principles of Trauma.
D. I: General Principles of Trauma; II: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee; III: Knee osteoarthritis.
Correct Answer: A
Full Explanation:
“Damage control orthopaedics (DCO) vs. early total care (ETC) decision-making in borderline polytrauma
patients” concerns General Principles of Trauma; “alignment philosophies” concerns Knee osteoarthritis;
and “patellofemoral alignment disorders” concerns Knee and Soft Tissue Knee. The correct allocation
keeps all three distinct. Each other allocation exchanges two focuses and therefore changes two of the
required associations.
3
, QUESTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS
Question 7
For I: “scaphoid non-union” and II: “compartment syndrome of the upper limb”, which paired
classification is the most appropriate?
A. I: Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist. II: Hand and Microvascular Surgery.
B. I: Hand and Microvascular Surgery. II: Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist.
C. I: Shoulder instability. II: Hand and Microvascular Surgery.
D. I: Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist. II: Knee and Soft Tissue Knee.
Correct Answer: A
Full Explanation:
Elbow, Forearm, and Wrist addresses “Kienböck's disease, scaphoid non-union, and carpal tunnel
syndrome”. Hand and Microvascular Surgery addresses “Hand infections, high-pressure injection injuries,
and compartment syndrome of the upper limb”. The correct pairing retains both associations; exchanging
the focuses or replacing one loses at least one of the stated requirements.
Question 8
An assessment centered on “Axial and Appendicular Trauma” considers “Diaphyseal and
periarticular fractures of the femur” and “fibula (including tibial plateau and pilon fractures)”. Which
third issue would keep the discussion within that focus?
A. fracture-dislocations
B. posterolateral rotatory instability and collateral ligament injuries
C. Pelvic ring injuries (Tile / Young-Burgess classifications) and acetabular fractures (Judet-Letournel
classification)
D. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
Correct Answer: C
Full Explanation:
Axial and Appendicular Trauma addresses “Diaphyseal and periarticular fractures of the femur, tibia, and
fibula (including tibial plateau and pilon fractures)”. Axial and Appendicular Trauma addresses “Pelvic ring
injuries (Tile / Young-Burgess classifications) and acetabular fractures (Judet-Letournel classification)”. All
three considerations belong to the Axial and Appendicular Trauma focus. The alternatives instead
introduce Elbow instability, Ligamentous injuries, or Thoracolumbar trauma.
Question 9
Which proposed expansion of a discussion on “humeral shaft” stays within “Upper limb trauma”,
rather than introducing the separate focus of “Hand and Microvascular Surgery”?
A. Replace the discussion with inflammatory arthropathies.
B. Redirect the discussion to spinal cord injury protocols.
C. Add consideration of Osteoarthritis of the hand and wrist (basal joint arthritis / thumb
carpometacarpal arthritis).
D. Add consideration of forearm fractures.
Correct Answer: D
Full Explanation:
Upper limb trauma addresses “proximal humerus, humeral shaft, distal humerus, olecranon, and forearm
fractures”. Hand and Microvascular Surgery addresses “Osteoarthritis of the hand and wrist (basal joint
arthritis / thumb carpometacarpal arthritis)”. The aligned addition develops the original Upper limb
trauma focus instead of replacing it.
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