ATI Adult Medical Surgical Nursing
Practice Examination 100 Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A
Instant Download Pdf
1. A nurse is caring for a client with COPD who is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min
via nasal cannula. The client reports increased dyspnea. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min
B. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading
C. Assess the client's respiratory rate, depth, and pattern
D. Instruct the client to purse-lip breathe
C. Assess the client's respiratory rate, depth, and pattern
The nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status before making any
changes to oxygen therapy. Clients with COPD rely on hypoxic drive to
breathe; increasing oxygen flow rate can suppress ventilation. Assessment
data guides appropriate intervention and ensures patient safety.
2. A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about proper use of a metered-
dose inhaler with a spacer. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will shake the inhaler, attach the spacer, exhale fully, then inhale slowly
and deeply."
B. "I will take two quick breaths after pressing the inhaler."
C. "I will hold my breath for 5 seconds after inhaling."
D. "I will rinse my mouth before using the inhaler."
A. "I will shake the inhaler, attach the spacer, exhale fully, then inhale slowly
and deeply."
Correct technique includes shaking the inhaler, exhaling fully, pressing the
,inhaler, and inhaling slowly over 3–5 seconds. The client should hold their
breath for 10 seconds. Rinsing the mouth afterward prevents oral candidiasis
with corticosteroid inhalers.
3. A nurse reviews ABG results for a client with pneumonia: pH 7.30, PaCO₂
50 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
A. Respiratory alkalosis with partial compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis without compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
D. Metabolic alkalosis without compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis without compensation
pH is below 7.35 indicating acidosis. PaCO₂ is elevated indicating a
respiratory origin. HCO₃⁻ is normal indicating the kidneys have not yet
compensated. This is uncompensated respiratory acidosis commonly seen in
pneumonia due to alveolar hypoventilation.
4. A client postoperative following total knee replacement develops sudden
dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer prescribed pain medication
B. Elevate the client's legs to promote venous return
C. Apply oxygen and notify the provider immediately
D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
C. Apply oxygen and notify the provider immediately
These findings suggest pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication
following orthopedic surgery. The nurse should first apply oxygen to address
hypoxemia and immediately notify the provider.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure taking furosemide. Which
finding indicates a therapeutic response?
A. Weight loss of 2 kg in 2 days
B. Heart rate 56/min
C. Blood pressure 88/52 mm Hg
D. Serum potassium 3.1 mEq/L
A. Weight loss of 2 kg in 2 days
Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload. A weight loss of
,0.5–1 kg per day is a therapeutic response. Heart rate 56/min and blood
pressure 88/52 indicate possible overdiuresis. Serum potassium 3.1 indicates
hypokalemia, an adverse effect.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation prescribed warfarin.
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
B. INR
Warfarin therapy is monitored using the INR with a therapeutic range of 2.0–
3.0 for atrial fibrillation. aPTT monitors heparin. Platelet count monitors for
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral arterial disease. Which finding
should the nurse expect?
A. Warm, edematous extremities
B. Brownish discoloration at the ankles
C. Cool, pale extremities with diminished pulses
D. Bounding pulses
C. Cool, pale extremities with diminished pulses
PAD causes reduced arterial blood flow, leading to cool, pale extremities,
diminished pulses, hair loss, and shiny skin. Warm, edematous extremities
and brownish discoloration suggest venous insufficiency.
8. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops
fever, chills, and low back pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
B. Slow the transfusion and administer acetaminophen
C. Continue the transfusion and monitor vital signs
D. Administer diphenhydramine
A. Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
Fever, chills, and low back pain suggest a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
, first action is to stop the transfusion immediately, maintain IV access with
normal saline using new tubing, and notify the provider.
9. A nurse is teaching a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Take the medication with grapefruit juice."
B. "Report muscle pain or weakness."
C. "Stop taking the medication if you feel better."
D. "Take the medication at bedtime with a snack."
B. "Report muscle pain or weakness."
Atorvastatin can cause myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Clients should report
muscle pain, weakness, or dark urine immediately. Grapefruit juice increases
statin levels and should be avoided.
10. A nurse is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis. Which finding
should the nurse expect?
A. Unilateral calf pain, swelling, and warmth
B. Bilateral leg swelling
C. Chest pain
D. Shortness of breath
A. Unilateral calf pain, swelling, and warmth
DVT typically presents with unilateral calf or thigh pain, swelling, warmth,
and redness. Bilateral swelling suggests heart failure. Chest pain and
shortness of breath may indicate pulmonary embolism.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which
intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Position the client flat with the neck flexed
B. Maintain head and neck in neutral alignment
C. Encourage frequent coughing
D. Perform frequent hip flexion exercises
B. Maintain head and neck in neutral alignment
Neutral alignment promotes venous drainage from the brain and helps
reduce ICP. Neck flexion, hip flexion, coughing, and straining can increase
intrathoracic pressure and impair cerebral venous return.
Practice Examination 100 Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A
Instant Download Pdf
1. A nurse is caring for a client with COPD who is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min
via nasal cannula. The client reports increased dyspnea. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min
B. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading
C. Assess the client's respiratory rate, depth, and pattern
D. Instruct the client to purse-lip breathe
C. Assess the client's respiratory rate, depth, and pattern
The nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status before making any
changes to oxygen therapy. Clients with COPD rely on hypoxic drive to
breathe; increasing oxygen flow rate can suppress ventilation. Assessment
data guides appropriate intervention and ensures patient safety.
2. A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about proper use of a metered-
dose inhaler with a spacer. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. "I will shake the inhaler, attach the spacer, exhale fully, then inhale slowly
and deeply."
B. "I will take two quick breaths after pressing the inhaler."
C. "I will hold my breath for 5 seconds after inhaling."
D. "I will rinse my mouth before using the inhaler."
A. "I will shake the inhaler, attach the spacer, exhale fully, then inhale slowly
and deeply."
Correct technique includes shaking the inhaler, exhaling fully, pressing the
,inhaler, and inhaling slowly over 3–5 seconds. The client should hold their
breath for 10 seconds. Rinsing the mouth afterward prevents oral candidiasis
with corticosteroid inhalers.
3. A nurse reviews ABG results for a client with pneumonia: pH 7.30, PaCO₂
50 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
A. Respiratory alkalosis with partial compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis without compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
D. Metabolic alkalosis without compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis without compensation
pH is below 7.35 indicating acidosis. PaCO₂ is elevated indicating a
respiratory origin. HCO₃⁻ is normal indicating the kidneys have not yet
compensated. This is uncompensated respiratory acidosis commonly seen in
pneumonia due to alveolar hypoventilation.
4. A client postoperative following total knee replacement develops sudden
dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer prescribed pain medication
B. Elevate the client's legs to promote venous return
C. Apply oxygen and notify the provider immediately
D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
C. Apply oxygen and notify the provider immediately
These findings suggest pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication
following orthopedic surgery. The nurse should first apply oxygen to address
hypoxemia and immediately notify the provider.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure taking furosemide. Which
finding indicates a therapeutic response?
A. Weight loss of 2 kg in 2 days
B. Heart rate 56/min
C. Blood pressure 88/52 mm Hg
D. Serum potassium 3.1 mEq/L
A. Weight loss of 2 kg in 2 days
Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload. A weight loss of
,0.5–1 kg per day is a therapeutic response. Heart rate 56/min and blood
pressure 88/52 indicate possible overdiuresis. Serum potassium 3.1 indicates
hypokalemia, an adverse effect.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation prescribed warfarin.
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
B. INR
Warfarin therapy is monitored using the INR with a therapeutic range of 2.0–
3.0 for atrial fibrillation. aPTT monitors heparin. Platelet count monitors for
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral arterial disease. Which finding
should the nurse expect?
A. Warm, edematous extremities
B. Brownish discoloration at the ankles
C. Cool, pale extremities with diminished pulses
D. Bounding pulses
C. Cool, pale extremities with diminished pulses
PAD causes reduced arterial blood flow, leading to cool, pale extremities,
diminished pulses, hair loss, and shiny skin. Warm, edematous extremities
and brownish discoloration suggest venous insufficiency.
8. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops
fever, chills, and low back pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
B. Slow the transfusion and administer acetaminophen
C. Continue the transfusion and monitor vital signs
D. Administer diphenhydramine
A. Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
Fever, chills, and low back pain suggest a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
, first action is to stop the transfusion immediately, maintain IV access with
normal saline using new tubing, and notify the provider.
9. A nurse is teaching a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Take the medication with grapefruit juice."
B. "Report muscle pain or weakness."
C. "Stop taking the medication if you feel better."
D. "Take the medication at bedtime with a snack."
B. "Report muscle pain or weakness."
Atorvastatin can cause myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Clients should report
muscle pain, weakness, or dark urine immediately. Grapefruit juice increases
statin levels and should be avoided.
10. A nurse is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis. Which finding
should the nurse expect?
A. Unilateral calf pain, swelling, and warmth
B. Bilateral leg swelling
C. Chest pain
D. Shortness of breath
A. Unilateral calf pain, swelling, and warmth
DVT typically presents with unilateral calf or thigh pain, swelling, warmth,
and redness. Bilateral swelling suggests heart failure. Chest pain and
shortness of breath may indicate pulmonary embolism.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure. Which
intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Position the client flat with the neck flexed
B. Maintain head and neck in neutral alignment
C. Encourage frequent coughing
D. Perform frequent hip flexion exercises
B. Maintain head and neck in neutral alignment
Neutral alignment promotes venous drainage from the brain and helps
reduce ICP. Neck flexion, hip flexion, coughing, and straining can increase
intrathoracic pressure and impair cerebral venous return.
