1
Test Bank for A Manual of Laboratory and
Diagnostic Tests 7th Edition Frances T.
Fischbach Actual Exam 2026/2027 Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Part I: Laboratory Fundamentals, Specimen Collection & Patient
Preparation (Questions 1-30)
Q1: A nurse is reviewing a laboratory slip for a fasting blood
glucose test. The patient states they had a cup of black coffee
and a slice of toast 3 hours ago. What is the most appropriate
action? A. Draw the blood and note the non-fasting status on the
lab slip B. Instruct the patient to drink only water and draw the
blood in 4 hours C. Reschedule the test for after a proper 8-to-
12-hour fast [CORRECT] D. Draw the specimen anyway
because coffee and toast do not affect glucose Correct Answer:
C Rationale: The best answer is C because an accurate fasting
glucose requires an 8-to-12-hour period of no caloric intake,
making rescheduling the only way to guarantee valid results.
Q2: Which of the following tests is classified as a CLIA-waived
test, allowing it to be performed by healthcare workers with
minimal training? A. Complete blood count (CBC) B. Blood
glucose using a portable meter [CORRECT] C. Arterial blood
gas (ABG) analysis D. Comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP)
Correct Answer: B Rationale: This choice is correct because
CLIA-waived tests are simple procedures with a low risk of
,2
erroneous results, and point-of-care glucose monitoring falls
directly into this category.
Q3: A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a patient. To prevent
hemoconcentration, the tourniquet should not be left on the arm
for longer than: A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute [CORRECT] C. 3
minutes D. 5 minutes Correct Answer: B Rationale: The best
answer is B because leaving a tourniquet on for longer than one
minute can alter test results by causing hemoconcentration,
which falsely elevates large molecules like proteins and cells.
Q4: When collecting blood for a coagulation study, which tube
is drawn first in the correct order of draw? A. Light blue
[CORRECT] B. Red and gold (SST) C. Green D. Lavender
Correct Answer: A Rationale: This choice is correct because the
light blue tube contains sodium citrate, which must be drawn
before other additive tubes to prevent tissue thromboplastin from
contaminating the specimen.
Q5: A patient is scheduled for a 24-hour urine collection for
creatinine clearance. The nurse instructs the patient to begin the
collection by: A. Saving the first morning void and saving all
urine for the next 24 hours B. Emptying the bladder and
discarding the first void, then saving all urine for the next 24
hours [CORRECT] C. Saving a midstream specimen and then
discarding all urine for the next 24 hours D. Discarding the first
void, saving the second void, and discarding all subsequent
voids Correct Answer: B Rationale: The best answer is B
because a 24-hour urine collection starts by discarding the first
specimen to establish a zero time, after which all urine for the
exact next 24 hours is saved.
,3
Q6: Before performing an arterial puncture to obtain an ABG,
the operator must perform which of the following assessments?
A. Romberg test B. Allen test [CORRECT] C. Weber test D.
Rinne test Correct Answer: B Rationale: This choice is correct
because the Allen test evaluates the adequacy of collateral
circulation in the hand before drawing arterial blood, ensuring
the ulnar artery can supply blood if the radial artery spasms.
Q7: A laboratory technician receives a specimen that appears
hemolyzed. Which of the following laboratory values would be
most falsely elevated due to hemolysis? A. Calcium B. Sodium
C. Potassium [CORRECT] D. Chloride Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C because potassium is highly
concentrated inside red blood cells, so when cells rupture during
hemolysis, large amounts of potassium are released into the
serum, causing a falsely elevated result.
Q8: When a critical value is obtained from a laboratory test, the
healthcare provider must be notified: A. Within 30 days of the
result B. Within 1 hour of specimen collection C. Immediately
or within a facility-defined short timeframe [CORRECT] D.
Only if the patient is currently on the nursing unit Correct
Answer: C Rationale: This choice is correct because critical
values represent life-threatening conditions that require
immediate clinical intervention, so delay in notification is
unacceptable.
Q9: For a patient requiring a stool specimen for occult blood, the
nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following
for 3 days prior to the test? A. Milk and dairy products B. Red
meat, vitamin C, and aspirin [CORRECT] C. Clear liquids and
, 4
gelatin D. Poultry and green vegetables Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because red meat can cause
false positives, and large doses of vitamin C can cause false
negatives in guaiac-based fecal occult blood tests, while aspirin
can cause GI bleeding.
Q10: A nurse is collecting a midstream clean-catch urine
specimen from a female patient. The correct instruction for
cleansing the perineal area is to wipe: A. From back to front
using a single swipe B. From front to back using separate swabs
for each area [CORRECT] C. In a circular motion starting at the
anus D. Using only tap water and a washcloth Correct Answer:
B Rationale: This choice is correct because wiping from front to
back prevents contaminating the urethral meatus with flora from
the anal area, ensuring a sterile specimen.
Q11: Which of the following is a pre-analytical error that can
affect laboratory test results? A. Incorrectly calibrating the
chemistry analyzer B. Transposing patient identification
numbers on the tube [CORRECT] C. Using the wrong reference
range for patient age D. Failing to notify the provider of a
critical value Correct Answer: B Rationale: The best answer is B
because mislabeling a specimen is a pre-analytical error that
occurs before the specimen is tested, leading to results being
attributed to the wrong patient.
Q12: The primary purpose of a chain of custody protocol when
collecting a urine drug screen is to: A. Ensure the patient cannot
sue the facility B. Guarantee the specimen cannot be tampered
with from collection to reporting [CORRECT] C. Prevent the
patient from refusing the test D. Allow the laboratory to bill the
Test Bank for A Manual of Laboratory and
Diagnostic Tests 7th Edition Frances T.
Fischbach Actual Exam 2026/2027 Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Part I: Laboratory Fundamentals, Specimen Collection & Patient
Preparation (Questions 1-30)
Q1: A nurse is reviewing a laboratory slip for a fasting blood
glucose test. The patient states they had a cup of black coffee
and a slice of toast 3 hours ago. What is the most appropriate
action? A. Draw the blood and note the non-fasting status on the
lab slip B. Instruct the patient to drink only water and draw the
blood in 4 hours C. Reschedule the test for after a proper 8-to-
12-hour fast [CORRECT] D. Draw the specimen anyway
because coffee and toast do not affect glucose Correct Answer:
C Rationale: The best answer is C because an accurate fasting
glucose requires an 8-to-12-hour period of no caloric intake,
making rescheduling the only way to guarantee valid results.
Q2: Which of the following tests is classified as a CLIA-waived
test, allowing it to be performed by healthcare workers with
minimal training? A. Complete blood count (CBC) B. Blood
glucose using a portable meter [CORRECT] C. Arterial blood
gas (ABG) analysis D. Comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP)
Correct Answer: B Rationale: This choice is correct because
CLIA-waived tests are simple procedures with a low risk of
,2
erroneous results, and point-of-care glucose monitoring falls
directly into this category.
Q3: A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a patient. To prevent
hemoconcentration, the tourniquet should not be left on the arm
for longer than: A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute [CORRECT] C. 3
minutes D. 5 minutes Correct Answer: B Rationale: The best
answer is B because leaving a tourniquet on for longer than one
minute can alter test results by causing hemoconcentration,
which falsely elevates large molecules like proteins and cells.
Q4: When collecting blood for a coagulation study, which tube
is drawn first in the correct order of draw? A. Light blue
[CORRECT] B. Red and gold (SST) C. Green D. Lavender
Correct Answer: A Rationale: This choice is correct because the
light blue tube contains sodium citrate, which must be drawn
before other additive tubes to prevent tissue thromboplastin from
contaminating the specimen.
Q5: A patient is scheduled for a 24-hour urine collection for
creatinine clearance. The nurse instructs the patient to begin the
collection by: A. Saving the first morning void and saving all
urine for the next 24 hours B. Emptying the bladder and
discarding the first void, then saving all urine for the next 24
hours [CORRECT] C. Saving a midstream specimen and then
discarding all urine for the next 24 hours D. Discarding the first
void, saving the second void, and discarding all subsequent
voids Correct Answer: B Rationale: The best answer is B
because a 24-hour urine collection starts by discarding the first
specimen to establish a zero time, after which all urine for the
exact next 24 hours is saved.
,3
Q6: Before performing an arterial puncture to obtain an ABG,
the operator must perform which of the following assessments?
A. Romberg test B. Allen test [CORRECT] C. Weber test D.
Rinne test Correct Answer: B Rationale: This choice is correct
because the Allen test evaluates the adequacy of collateral
circulation in the hand before drawing arterial blood, ensuring
the ulnar artery can supply blood if the radial artery spasms.
Q7: A laboratory technician receives a specimen that appears
hemolyzed. Which of the following laboratory values would be
most falsely elevated due to hemolysis? A. Calcium B. Sodium
C. Potassium [CORRECT] D. Chloride Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C because potassium is highly
concentrated inside red blood cells, so when cells rupture during
hemolysis, large amounts of potassium are released into the
serum, causing a falsely elevated result.
Q8: When a critical value is obtained from a laboratory test, the
healthcare provider must be notified: A. Within 30 days of the
result B. Within 1 hour of specimen collection C. Immediately
or within a facility-defined short timeframe [CORRECT] D.
Only if the patient is currently on the nursing unit Correct
Answer: C Rationale: This choice is correct because critical
values represent life-threatening conditions that require
immediate clinical intervention, so delay in notification is
unacceptable.
Q9: For a patient requiring a stool specimen for occult blood, the
nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following
for 3 days prior to the test? A. Milk and dairy products B. Red
meat, vitamin C, and aspirin [CORRECT] C. Clear liquids and
, 4
gelatin D. Poultry and green vegetables Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because red meat can cause
false positives, and large doses of vitamin C can cause false
negatives in guaiac-based fecal occult blood tests, while aspirin
can cause GI bleeding.
Q10: A nurse is collecting a midstream clean-catch urine
specimen from a female patient. The correct instruction for
cleansing the perineal area is to wipe: A. From back to front
using a single swipe B. From front to back using separate swabs
for each area [CORRECT] C. In a circular motion starting at the
anus D. Using only tap water and a washcloth Correct Answer:
B Rationale: This choice is correct because wiping from front to
back prevents contaminating the urethral meatus with flora from
the anal area, ensuring a sterile specimen.
Q11: Which of the following is a pre-analytical error that can
affect laboratory test results? A. Incorrectly calibrating the
chemistry analyzer B. Transposing patient identification
numbers on the tube [CORRECT] C. Using the wrong reference
range for patient age D. Failing to notify the provider of a
critical value Correct Answer: B Rationale: The best answer is B
because mislabeling a specimen is a pre-analytical error that
occurs before the specimen is tested, leading to results being
attributed to the wrong patient.
Q12: The primary purpose of a chain of custody protocol when
collecting a urine drug screen is to: A. Ensure the patient cannot
sue the facility B. Guarantee the specimen cannot be tampered
with from collection to reporting [CORRECT] C. Prevent the
patient from refusing the test D. Allow the laboratory to bill the
