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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 2 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
West Coast EMT Block 2 Exam (2026/2027)
Questions 1–250
1. A 58-year-old male is found unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic by his family. Bystanders
have not initiated CPR. What is your immediate priority?
A) Attach the AED and analyze the rhythm.
B) Initiate high-quality chest compressions immediately.
C) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate with a BVM.
D) Obtain a detailed medical history from the family.
Answer: B. Rationale: In any patient found in cardiac arrest, the absolute immediate priority is
high-quality chest compressions to circulate oxygenated blood. Compressions should be started
immediately while preparing the AED and airway adjuncts .
2. You are treating a 45-year-old female experiencing severe shortness of breath, audible
wheezing, and a tight chest. She has a history of asthma and is using her prescribed albuterol
inhaler with little relief. Her vital signs are: HR 120, BP 130/80, RR 28, SpO2 88% on room air.
What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A) Administer oral glucose.
B) Apply supplemental oxygen via non-rebreather mask or nasal cannula to maintain SpO2 ≥
94%.
C) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
D) Place the patient in a flat supine position.
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Answer: B. Rationale: An asthma exacerbation causing hypoxia (SpO2 88%) requires immediate
supplemental oxygen administration to correct hypoxemia, alongside assisting with
bronchodilator therapy per protocol .
3. Which of the following signs or symptoms is most characteristic of hypoglycemia in a
diabetic patient?
A) Kussmaul respirations and a fruity breath odor
B) Gradual onset of excessive thirst and frequent urination
C) Rapid onset of altered mental status, cool/clammy skin, and tachycardia
D) Hot, dry, and flushed skin with a history of missed insulin doses
Answer: C. Rationale: Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) typically presents with a sudden onset of
altered mental status, diaphoresis (cool/clammy skin), tachycardia, and nervous tremors due to
the release of epinephrine .
4. An adult patient is experiencing severe anaphylaxis after being stung by a wasp. They
exhibit hives, facial swelling, stridor, and a blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg. What medication
is indicated, and what is the standard adult dose?
A) Albuterol, 2.5 mg nebulized
B) Epinephrine, 0.3 mg (1:1,000) via intramuscular injection
C) Diphenhydramine, 12.5 mg IV push
D) Naloxone, 2 mg intranasal
Answer: B. Rationale: Epinephrine is the primary lifesaving medication for anaphylaxis. The
standard adult IM dose is 0.3 mg of a 1:1,000 concentration, which causes vasoconstriction and
bronchodilation .
5. When performing a FAST exam for a suspected stroke patient, what does the "T" stand for,
and why is it critical?
A) Temperature; to check for concurrent systemic infection.
B) Time; to determine the exact time symptom onset occurred for treatment window eligibility.
C) Tone; to assess muscle rigidity in the extremities.
D) Tremors; to evaluate for Parkinsonian movement disorders.
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Answer: B. Rationale: The "T" in FAST stands for Time. Determining the exact time of symptom
onset is critical for determining eligibility for fibrinolytic therapy within the treatment window .
6. A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours.
The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should:
A) assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.
B) apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae.
C) apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm.
D) open his airway and give two rescue breaths.
Answer: A. Rationale: In a severely hypothermic patient who is unresponsive and apneic, you
must assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds before initiating CPR, as the heart may be in
a profoundly bradycardic state .
7. A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious
and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture
marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing
reassurance, further care for this patient should include:
A) elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin.
B) supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.
C) applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly.
D) transporting only with close, continuous monitoring.
Answer: B. Rationale: For a snakebite with minimal signs, care includes keeping the patient
supine, splinting the affected extremity to reduce lymphatic flow, and transporting for definitive
care .
8. All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT:
A) trench foot.
B) frostnip.
C) frostbite.
D) immersion foot.
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Answer: C. Rationale: Frostbite refers to actual freezing of tissue. Trench foot, frostnip, and
immersion foot are all non-freezing cold injuries .
9. Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically:
A) full-thickness.
B) superficial.
C) partial-thickness.
D) third-degree.
Answer: B. Rationale: Lightning strikes typically cause superficial burns due to the flashover
effect, where current travels over the body's surface rather than through it .
10. Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) headache.
B) hot, dry skin.
C) nausea.
D) tachycardia.
Answer: B. Rationale: Hot, dry skin is a classic sign of heat stroke, not heat exhaustion. Heat
exhaustion typically presents with cool, clammy, and diaphoretic skin .
11. Drowning is MOST accurately defined as:
A) water in the lungs following submersion in water.
B) death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.
C) temporary survival after submersion in water.
D) death from suffocation after submersion in water.
Answer: D. Rationale: Drowning is defined as death from suffocation (asphyxia) after
submersion in a liquid, regardless of whether water enters the lungs .
12. Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:
A) 88°F (31°C).
B) 98°F (37°C).
C) 95°F (35°C).
D) 90°F (32°C).
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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 2 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
West Coast EMT Block 2 Exam (2026/2027)
Questions 1–250
1. A 58-year-old male is found unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic by his family. Bystanders
have not initiated CPR. What is your immediate priority?
A) Attach the AED and analyze the rhythm.
B) Initiate high-quality chest compressions immediately.
C) Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate with a BVM.
D) Obtain a detailed medical history from the family.
Answer: B. Rationale: In any patient found in cardiac arrest, the absolute immediate priority is
high-quality chest compressions to circulate oxygenated blood. Compressions should be started
immediately while preparing the AED and airway adjuncts .
2. You are treating a 45-year-old female experiencing severe shortness of breath, audible
wheezing, and a tight chest. She has a history of asthma and is using her prescribed albuterol
inhaler with little relief. Her vital signs are: HR 120, BP 130/80, RR 28, SpO2 88% on room air.
What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A) Administer oral glucose.
B) Apply supplemental oxygen via non-rebreather mask or nasal cannula to maintain SpO2 ≥
94%.
C) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
D) Place the patient in a flat supine position.
1|Page
,Page 2 of 65
Answer: B. Rationale: An asthma exacerbation causing hypoxia (SpO2 88%) requires immediate
supplemental oxygen administration to correct hypoxemia, alongside assisting with
bronchodilator therapy per protocol .
3. Which of the following signs or symptoms is most characteristic of hypoglycemia in a
diabetic patient?
A) Kussmaul respirations and a fruity breath odor
B) Gradual onset of excessive thirst and frequent urination
C) Rapid onset of altered mental status, cool/clammy skin, and tachycardia
D) Hot, dry, and flushed skin with a history of missed insulin doses
Answer: C. Rationale: Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) typically presents with a sudden onset of
altered mental status, diaphoresis (cool/clammy skin), tachycardia, and nervous tremors due to
the release of epinephrine .
4. An adult patient is experiencing severe anaphylaxis after being stung by a wasp. They
exhibit hives, facial swelling, stridor, and a blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg. What medication
is indicated, and what is the standard adult dose?
A) Albuterol, 2.5 mg nebulized
B) Epinephrine, 0.3 mg (1:1,000) via intramuscular injection
C) Diphenhydramine, 12.5 mg IV push
D) Naloxone, 2 mg intranasal
Answer: B. Rationale: Epinephrine is the primary lifesaving medication for anaphylaxis. The
standard adult IM dose is 0.3 mg of a 1:1,000 concentration, which causes vasoconstriction and
bronchodilation .
5. When performing a FAST exam for a suspected stroke patient, what does the "T" stand for,
and why is it critical?
A) Temperature; to check for concurrent systemic infection.
B) Time; to determine the exact time symptom onset occurred for treatment window eligibility.
C) Tone; to assess muscle rigidity in the extremities.
D) Tremors; to evaluate for Parkinsonian movement disorders.
2|Page
,Page 3 of 65
Answer: B. Rationale: The "T" in FAST stands for Time. Determining the exact time of symptom
onset is critical for determining eligibility for fibrinolytic therapy within the treatment window .
6. A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours.
The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should:
A) assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.
B) apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae.
C) apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm.
D) open his airway and give two rescue breaths.
Answer: A. Rationale: In a severely hypothermic patient who is unresponsive and apneic, you
must assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds before initiating CPR, as the heart may be in
a profoundly bradycardic state .
7. A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious
and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture
marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing
reassurance, further care for this patient should include:
A) elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin.
B) supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.
C) applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly.
D) transporting only with close, continuous monitoring.
Answer: B. Rationale: For a snakebite with minimal signs, care includes keeping the patient
supine, splinting the affected extremity to reduce lymphatic flow, and transporting for definitive
care .
8. All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT:
A) trench foot.
B) frostnip.
C) frostbite.
D) immersion foot.
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, Page 4 of 65
Answer: C. Rationale: Frostbite refers to actual freezing of tissue. Trench foot, frostnip, and
immersion foot are all non-freezing cold injuries .
9. Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically:
A) full-thickness.
B) superficial.
C) partial-thickness.
D) third-degree.
Answer: B. Rationale: Lightning strikes typically cause superficial burns due to the flashover
effect, where current travels over the body's surface rather than through it .
10. Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) headache.
B) hot, dry skin.
C) nausea.
D) tachycardia.
Answer: B. Rationale: Hot, dry skin is a classic sign of heat stroke, not heat exhaustion. Heat
exhaustion typically presents with cool, clammy, and diaphoretic skin .
11. Drowning is MOST accurately defined as:
A) water in the lungs following submersion in water.
B) death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.
C) temporary survival after submersion in water.
D) death from suffocation after submersion in water.
Answer: D. Rationale: Drowning is defined as death from suffocation (asphyxia) after
submersion in a liquid, regardless of whether water enters the lungs .
12. Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:
A) 88°F (31°C).
B) 98°F (37°C).
C) 95°F (35°C).
D) 90°F (32°C).
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