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NURS 6501 Midterm Exam – Questions with Answers & Explanations | Latest 2026 Advanced Pathophysiology Study Guide (NURS 6501N)

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NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm Exam study guide covering cellular adaptation and injury, genetics, inflammation and immune responses, fluid and electrolyte balance, and major cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, and other disease processes. Includes practice questions with answers and explanations for 2026 exam preparation.

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NURS 6501 Midterm Exam – Questions with Answers
& Explanations | Latest 2026 Advanced
Pathophysiology Study Guide (NURS 6501N)

Description

NURS 6501/NURS 6501N Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm Exam – Latest 2026
prep with 250 multiple-choice questions, verified answers, and detailed explanations.
Covers cellular adaptation and injury, genetics, inflammation and immunity,
fluid/electrolyte/acid-base balance, cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, GI/hepatic,
endocrine, and neurologic pathophysiology. Perfect for Walden University MSN
students and guaranteed pass. Instant PDF download.




SECTION 1: CELLULAR ADAPTATION & INJURY (Questions 1–35)

1. A 68-year-old male with chronic heart failure presents with an enlarged heart on
echocardiogram. The cardiomyocytes have increased in size but not in number.
Which cellular adaptation is this?
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia

,Answer: B. Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size without an increase in cell number,
commonly seen in cardiac and skeletal muscle in response to increased workload. Atrophy
is a decrease in cell size. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number, which cannot occur in
terminally differentiated cardiac muscle. Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one
adult cell type with another .

2. A 45-year-old chronic smoker undergoes bronchoscopy. Biopsy of the bronchial
epithelium reveals replacement of normal ciliated columnar epithelium with stratified
squamous epithelium. Which cellular adaptation has occurred?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Anaplasia
D. Dysplasia

Answer: B. Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated adult cell type with
another, often an adaptive response to chronic irritation (e.g., squamous metaplasia of
bronchial epithelium in smokers). Dysplasia is disordered cellular growth with atypical
features. Anaplasia is lack of differentiation characteristic of malignant cells .

3. A 55-year-old male sustains an acute myocardial infarction. Six hours after the
infarction, histologic examination of the necrotic myocardium would most likely
reveal:
A. Apoptosis with chromatin condensation and apoptotic bodies
B. Coagulative necrosis with preserved tissue architecture
C. Liquefactive necrosis with cyst formation
D. Caseous necrosis with cheese-like appearance

Answer: B. Coagulative necrosis, characterized by protein denaturation and preserved
tissue architecture, is the hallmark of ischemic injury in most solid organs, especially the

,heart and kidney. Apoptosis is programmed cell death with chromatin condensation and
apoptotic bodies. Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain and in bacterial abscesses.
Caseous necrosis is associated with tuberculosis .

4. A 32-year-old female presents with progressive muscle weakness. Genetic testing
reveals a mutation causing dysfunctional mitochondria. Which cellular process is
most directly impaired?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production
C. Lysosomal degradation
D. DNA replication

Answer: B. Mitochondria are responsible for oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production.
Dysfunctional mitochondria impair cellular energy metabolism, leading to muscle weakness
and fatigue .

5. A 28-year-old female has a biopsy of cervical tissue showing disordered cellular
arrangement with cells of varying sizes, hyperchromatic nuclei, and increased
nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, but the basement membrane is intact. Which cellular
adaptation is described?
A. Metaplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Anaplasia
D. Hyperplasia

Answer: B. Dysplasia is disordered cellular proliferation characterized by loss of uniformity,
pleomorphism, hyperchromatic nuclei, and increased mitoses, but with an intact basement
membrane (no invasion). It is considered a premalignant change that may progress to
carcinoma in situ .

, 6. A 70-year-old female with a long leg cast after a femur fracture develops significant
wasting of the quadriceps muscle in the immobilized leg over 6 weeks. Which cellular
mechanism is most responsible for this finding?
A. Decreased protein synthesis and increased proteolysis in muscle cells
B. Loss of muscle cell number through apoptosis
C. Metaplasia of muscle to fibrous tissue
D. Sarcomere hyperplasia

Answer: A. Disuse atrophy of skeletal muscle is mediated by decreased protein synthesis,
increased ubiquitin-proteasome proteolysis, and reduced mechanical loading signals,
leading to decreased cell size and muscle wasting .

7. A 60-year-old male suffers a myocardial infarction. Histologic examination of the
infarcted tissue 24 hours later reveals cell swelling, ruptured plasma membranes, and
an influx of neutrophils. Which form of cell death is described?
A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C. Autophagy
D. Pyroptosis

Answer: B. Necrosis is characterized by cell swelling (oncosis), membrane rupture, release
of cellular contents, and a robust inflammatory response—all consequences of ATP
depletion, ionic imbalance, and irreversible injury following ischemia .

8. A 45-year-old male develops acute tubular necrosis after a hypotensive episode.
Cellular injury in this scenario is initiated by depletion of which molecule, and what is
the immediate downstream consequence?
A. Depletion of ATP, leading to failure of the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump and cellular swelling
B. Depletion of calcium, leading to muscle tetany

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Subido en
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