NUR 6001 - Advanced Health Assessment - GI/MSK/Neuro PE Exam 120 Questions - AGRADE Verified 2026/2027
NUR 6001 — Advanced Health Assessment
Comprehensive PE Examination — GI, Musculoskeletal, and Neurological Systems
120 Questions with Verified Answers and Complete Solutions | 2026/2027 Update
Graduate Nursing Education | Advanced Health Assessment Course | AGRADE Verified
Instructions to Candidate: This examination consists of 120 multiple-choice items distributed across twelve sections covering the
gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, and neurological physical examination. Each item has exactly one best answer. Cognitive level
distribution: approximately 30% recall (examination techniques, anatomy), 50% application (clinical scenarios requiring PE
interpretation), and 20% analysis (integration of multiple PE findings with differential diagnosis). Mark the single best answer for
each question. The correct answer and a complete-solution rationale explaining examination technique, anatomical basis, and
clinical significance are provided immediately beneath each item.
Section 1: Gastrointestinal System — Anatomy and Physiology Review (Q1-Q10)
Structure, Function, & Age-Related Changes
Q1: A graduate nursing student is reviewing GI anatomy. Which statement correctly describes the anatomical
relationship of the esophagus to surrounding structures?
A. The esophagus lies anterior to the trachea in the thorax
B. The esophagus lies posterior to the trachea in the thorax and pierces the diaphragm at approximately T10
vertebral level through the esophageal hiatus [CORRECT]
C. The esophagus lies lateral to the trachea and enters the stomach at T6
D. The esophagus is located anterior to the heart and joins the stomach at L1
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The esophagus lies posterior to the trachea in the thorax, with the trachea anterior and the vertebral column posterior. It pierces the
diaphragm through the esophageal hiatus at approximately the T10 vertebral level, joined by the right and left vagus nerves. At the
gastroesophageal junction, the squamous epithelium transitions to columnar epithelium (z-line). This anatomical relationship
explains why tracheoesophageal fistulas and aspiration are clinical risks.
Q2: A patient presents with epigastric pain. The NP correctly identifies that the stomach has which anatomical
divisions in a proximal-to-distal order?
A. Antrum, body, fundus, pylorus
B. Fundus, cardia, body, antrum, pylorus [CORRECT]
C. Cardia, antrum, body, fundus
D. Body, fundus, antrum, cardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The stomach has four anatomical divisions from proximal to distal: cardia (adjacent to the gastroesophageal junction), fundus
(dome-shaped, superior-most, contacts left hemidiaphragm), body (central, largest), antrum (distal funnel-shaped portion), and
pylorus (narrow distal segment containing the pyloric sphincter that controls gastric emptying). The cardia is sometimes counted
with the fundus. The fundus and body contain parietal cells (acid) and chief cells (pepsin); the antrum contains G cells (gastrin).
Q3: A graduate nursing student is reviewing small intestine anatomy. Which statement correctly identifies the
order of segments from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve?
Page 1 | Advanced Health Assessment Graduate Nursing
,NUR 6001 - Advanced Health Assessment - GI/MSK/Neuro PE Exam 120 Questions - AGRADE Verified 2026/2027
A. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
B. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
C. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum [CORRECT]
D. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The small intestine extends approximately 6-7 meters in adults and consists of three segments: the duodenum (approximately 25 cm,
retroperitoneal, C-loop surrounding the head of the pancreas, receiving bile and pancreatic secretions via the ampulla of Vater), the
jejunum (approximately 2.5 m, intraperitoneal, vascular with large plicae circulares), and the ileum (approximately 3.5 m,
intraperitoneal, terminates at the ileocecal valve). The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the jejunum.
Q4: A patient presents with right lower quadrant pain. The NP correctly understands that the cecum is located
in which quadrant and is connected to which appendage?
A. Left lower quadrant, connected to the sigmoid colon
B. Right lower quadrant, connected to the vermiform appendix at the base [CORRECT]
C. Right upper quadrant, connected to the ileum
D. Epigastric region, connected to the jejunum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The cecum is the proximal-most segment of the large intestine, located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ). The vermiform appendix
attaches at the base of the cecum (3 cm below the ileocecal valve). The appendix position varies: retrocecal (most common, ~65%),
pelvic, subcecal, or preileal. McBurney point (one-third the distance from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus)
corresponds to the base of the appendix and is the classic location of maximal tenderness in acute appendicitis.
Q5: A patient presents with right upper quadrant tenderness. The NP correctly understands that the liver is
divided into which anatomical divisions by surface landmarks?
A. Right and left lobes, divided by the ligamentum teres and falciform ligament [CORRECT]
B. Four lobes divided by the coronary ligament
C. Anterior and posterior segments divided by the porta hepatis
D. Three lobes divided by the round ligament only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The liver is anatomically divided into the right lobe (larger) and left lobe (smaller) by the falciform ligament anteriorly, the
ligamentum teres (round ligament, obliterated umbilical vein) inferiorly, and the ligamentum venosum (obliterated ductus venosus)
posteriorly. Functionally, the liver is divided into eight Couinaud segments based on portal and hepatic vein anatomy. The
gallbladder sits in a fossa on the inferior surface of the right lobe, between segments IV and V.
Q6: A patient is being evaluated for biliary colic. The NP correctly identifies the gallbladder's primary function
as:
A. Production of bile by hepatocytes
B. Storage and concentration of bile between meals, releasing it into the duodenum via the cystic and common
bile ducts in response to cholecystokinin after fatty food ingestion [CORRECT]
C. Detoxification of alcohol
D. Production of pancreatic enzymes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Page 2 | Advanced Health Assessment Graduate Nursing
,NUR 6001 - Advanced Health Assessment - GI/MSK/Neuro PE Exam 120 Questions - AGRADE Verified 2026/2027
The gallbladder is a pear-shaped organ located on the inferior surface of the liver, functioning primarily to store and concentrate bile
(5-10 fold by water absorption) between meals. After a fatty meal, cholecystokinin (CCK) released by duodenal I cells in response to
fat and protein stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi, allowing bile to flow via the cystic duct,
common bile duct, and ampulla of Vater into the duodenum for fat emulsification.
Q7: A patient presents with chronic pancreatitis. The NP correctly understands that the pancreas performs
which dual physiological functions?
A. Exocrine production of insulin and endocrine production of bile
B. Endocrine secretion of insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin from islets of Langerhans; exocrine secretion of
digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase, proteases) from acinar cells into the duodenum [CORRECT]
C. Endocrine production of bile and exocrine production of insulin
D. Both functions are exclusively endocrine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The pancreas has dual functions. The endocrine pancreas (islets of Langerhans, ~1-2% of pancreas mass) secretes hormones into
blood: insulin and amylin (beta cells), glucagon (alpha cells), somatostatin (delta cells), pancreatic polypeptide (PP cells), and
ghrelin (epsilon cells). The exocrine pancreas (acinar and duct cells, ~98% of mass) secretes digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase,
trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, elastase, nucleases) and bicarbonate via the main pancreatic duct into the duodenum. Chronic
pancreatitis destroys both functions, producing diabetes mellitus and pancreatic exocrine insufficiency (steatorrhea, malabsorption).
Q8: A patient with mononucleosis is being evaluated for potential splenomegaly. The NP correctly understands
that the spleen is normally located in which abdominal region and is normally palpable below the costal margin?
A. Right upper quadrant, normally palpable 2 cm below the costal margin
B. Left upper quadrant, protected by ribs 9-11, and is normally NOT palpable below the costal margin in
adults [CORRECT]
C. Epigastric region, normally palpable on deep inspiration
D. Umbilical region, palpable in thin adults
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant (LUQ), protected beneath ribs 9-11, between the fundus of the stomach and the
diaphragm. It is normally NOT palpable below the left costal margin in adults; if it becomes palpable, it is typically enlarged 2-3
times its normal size. The spleen performs immune functions (white pulp, splenic macrophages, antibody production) and filtration
functions (red pulp, removal of old RBCs, Howell-Jolly bodies, pitting). Splenomegaly can occur in mononucleosis, portal
hypertension, infections, hematologic malignancies, and storage disorders.
Q9: A 78-year-old patient presents for routine examination. The NP recognizes which age-related change in the
gastrointestinal system as clinically significant?
A. Increased gastric acid production leading to PUD
B. Decreased salivation, decreased esophageal motility, decreased colonic motility, and decreased hepatic
metabolism, predisposing to dysphagia, constipation, and altered drug handling [CORRECT]
C. Increased colonic motility causing diarrhea
D. Increased lower esophageal sphincter tone preventing GERD
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Age-related GI changes include: decreased salivation (xerostomia, dysphagia), decreased esophageal motility (presbyesophagus,
GERD risk), decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone (GERD), decreased gastric acid secretion and mucosal defense (atrophic
gastritis, B12 deficiency), decreased colonic motility and decreased rectal sensation (constipation, fecal incontinence), decreased
Page 3 | Advanced Health Assessment Graduate Nursing
, NUR 6001 - Advanced Health Assessment - GI/MSK/Neuro PE Exam 120 Questions - AGRADE Verified 2026/2027
hepatic blood flow and mass (altered drug metabolism), and decreased anal sphincter tone. These changes predispose older adults to
dysphagia, constipation, GERD, and adverse drug reactions.
Q10: A graduate nursing student is reviewing the four abdominal quadrants. The NP correctly identifies the
contents of the right upper quadrant (RUQ) as:
A. Stomach, spleen, and left kidney
B. Liver, gallbladder, right kidney, hepatic flexure of colon, and duodenum [CORRECT]
C. Cecum, appendix, and right ovary
D. Sigmoid colon, left kidney, and left ovary
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The four abdominal quadrants (RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, LLQ) are divided by a vertical line through the umbilicus (midclavicular line) and
a horizontal line through the umbilicus (transumbilical plane). RUQ contains: liver (right lobe), gallbladder, right kidney
(posteriorly), right adrenal gland, hepatic flexure of colon, portions of duodenum and pancreatic head. LUQ contains: stomach,
spleen, left kidney, left adrenal gland, splenic flexure of colon, pancreatic body/tail. RLQ contains: cecum, appendix, right ovary,
right ureter. LLQ contains: sigmoid colon, left ovary, left ureter.
Section 2: Gastrointestinal System — History and Subjective Data (Q11-Q20)
Chief Complaint, ROS, & Risk Factors
Q11: A 35-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain. The NP uses the OLDCARTS framework to
characterize the pain. The 'O' in OLDCARTS represents:
A. Onset: when the pain started, including whether sudden, gradual, or related to a specific event [CORRECT]
B. Outcome of the pain
C. Organ involvement suspected
D. Other associated symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
OLDCARTS is a mnemonic for characterizing pain: O = Onset (when started, sudden or gradual, related to event), L = Location
(where, radiation), D = Duration (continuous or intermittent, how long each episode), C = Characteristics (sharp, dull, burning,
cramping), A = Aggravating/Alleviating factors (food, position, medication, vomiting), R = Radiation (where does it spread), T =
Timing (relationship to meals, time of day), S = Severity (0-10 numeric scale or verbal descriptor). This systematic approach ensures
complete characterization.
Q12: A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder reports vomiting 'coffee-ground' material. The NP correctly
interprets this finding as:
A. Fresh, brisk upper GI bleeding requiring emergent endoscopy
B. Hematemesis of partially digested blood that has been in contact with gastric acid, converting hemoglobin to
hematin (acid hematin), producing the dark, granular 'coffee-ground' appearance; indicates upper GI bleeding
that is slower or has stopped [CORRECT]
C. Bile-stained vomitus indicating bowel obstruction
D. Feculent vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Page 4 | Advanced Health Assessment Graduate Nursing
NUR 6001 — Advanced Health Assessment
Comprehensive PE Examination — GI, Musculoskeletal, and Neurological Systems
120 Questions with Verified Answers and Complete Solutions | 2026/2027 Update
Graduate Nursing Education | Advanced Health Assessment Course | AGRADE Verified
Instructions to Candidate: This examination consists of 120 multiple-choice items distributed across twelve sections covering the
gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, and neurological physical examination. Each item has exactly one best answer. Cognitive level
distribution: approximately 30% recall (examination techniques, anatomy), 50% application (clinical scenarios requiring PE
interpretation), and 20% analysis (integration of multiple PE findings with differential diagnosis). Mark the single best answer for
each question. The correct answer and a complete-solution rationale explaining examination technique, anatomical basis, and
clinical significance are provided immediately beneath each item.
Section 1: Gastrointestinal System — Anatomy and Physiology Review (Q1-Q10)
Structure, Function, & Age-Related Changes
Q1: A graduate nursing student is reviewing GI anatomy. Which statement correctly describes the anatomical
relationship of the esophagus to surrounding structures?
A. The esophagus lies anterior to the trachea in the thorax
B. The esophagus lies posterior to the trachea in the thorax and pierces the diaphragm at approximately T10
vertebral level through the esophageal hiatus [CORRECT]
C. The esophagus lies lateral to the trachea and enters the stomach at T6
D. The esophagus is located anterior to the heart and joins the stomach at L1
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The esophagus lies posterior to the trachea in the thorax, with the trachea anterior and the vertebral column posterior. It pierces the
diaphragm through the esophageal hiatus at approximately the T10 vertebral level, joined by the right and left vagus nerves. At the
gastroesophageal junction, the squamous epithelium transitions to columnar epithelium (z-line). This anatomical relationship
explains why tracheoesophageal fistulas and aspiration are clinical risks.
Q2: A patient presents with epigastric pain. The NP correctly identifies that the stomach has which anatomical
divisions in a proximal-to-distal order?
A. Antrum, body, fundus, pylorus
B. Fundus, cardia, body, antrum, pylorus [CORRECT]
C. Cardia, antrum, body, fundus
D. Body, fundus, antrum, cardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The stomach has four anatomical divisions from proximal to distal: cardia (adjacent to the gastroesophageal junction), fundus
(dome-shaped, superior-most, contacts left hemidiaphragm), body (central, largest), antrum (distal funnel-shaped portion), and
pylorus (narrow distal segment containing the pyloric sphincter that controls gastric emptying). The cardia is sometimes counted
with the fundus. The fundus and body contain parietal cells (acid) and chief cells (pepsin); the antrum contains G cells (gastrin).
Q3: A graduate nursing student is reviewing small intestine anatomy. Which statement correctly identifies the
order of segments from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve?
Page 1 | Advanced Health Assessment Graduate Nursing
,NUR 6001 - Advanced Health Assessment - GI/MSK/Neuro PE Exam 120 Questions - AGRADE Verified 2026/2027
A. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum
B. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
C. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum [CORRECT]
D. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The small intestine extends approximately 6-7 meters in adults and consists of three segments: the duodenum (approximately 25 cm,
retroperitoneal, C-loop surrounding the head of the pancreas, receiving bile and pancreatic secretions via the ampulla of Vater), the
jejunum (approximately 2.5 m, intraperitoneal, vascular with large plicae circulares), and the ileum (approximately 3.5 m,
intraperitoneal, terminates at the ileocecal valve). The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the jejunum.
Q4: A patient presents with right lower quadrant pain. The NP correctly understands that the cecum is located
in which quadrant and is connected to which appendage?
A. Left lower quadrant, connected to the sigmoid colon
B. Right lower quadrant, connected to the vermiform appendix at the base [CORRECT]
C. Right upper quadrant, connected to the ileum
D. Epigastric region, connected to the jejunum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The cecum is the proximal-most segment of the large intestine, located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ). The vermiform appendix
attaches at the base of the cecum (3 cm below the ileocecal valve). The appendix position varies: retrocecal (most common, ~65%),
pelvic, subcecal, or preileal. McBurney point (one-third the distance from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus)
corresponds to the base of the appendix and is the classic location of maximal tenderness in acute appendicitis.
Q5: A patient presents with right upper quadrant tenderness. The NP correctly understands that the liver is
divided into which anatomical divisions by surface landmarks?
A. Right and left lobes, divided by the ligamentum teres and falciform ligament [CORRECT]
B. Four lobes divided by the coronary ligament
C. Anterior and posterior segments divided by the porta hepatis
D. Three lobes divided by the round ligament only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The liver is anatomically divided into the right lobe (larger) and left lobe (smaller) by the falciform ligament anteriorly, the
ligamentum teres (round ligament, obliterated umbilical vein) inferiorly, and the ligamentum venosum (obliterated ductus venosus)
posteriorly. Functionally, the liver is divided into eight Couinaud segments based on portal and hepatic vein anatomy. The
gallbladder sits in a fossa on the inferior surface of the right lobe, between segments IV and V.
Q6: A patient is being evaluated for biliary colic. The NP correctly identifies the gallbladder's primary function
as:
A. Production of bile by hepatocytes
B. Storage and concentration of bile between meals, releasing it into the duodenum via the cystic and common
bile ducts in response to cholecystokinin after fatty food ingestion [CORRECT]
C. Detoxification of alcohol
D. Production of pancreatic enzymes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Page 2 | Advanced Health Assessment Graduate Nursing
,NUR 6001 - Advanced Health Assessment - GI/MSK/Neuro PE Exam 120 Questions - AGRADE Verified 2026/2027
The gallbladder is a pear-shaped organ located on the inferior surface of the liver, functioning primarily to store and concentrate bile
(5-10 fold by water absorption) between meals. After a fatty meal, cholecystokinin (CCK) released by duodenal I cells in response to
fat and protein stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi, allowing bile to flow via the cystic duct,
common bile duct, and ampulla of Vater into the duodenum for fat emulsification.
Q7: A patient presents with chronic pancreatitis. The NP correctly understands that the pancreas performs
which dual physiological functions?
A. Exocrine production of insulin and endocrine production of bile
B. Endocrine secretion of insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin from islets of Langerhans; exocrine secretion of
digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase, proteases) from acinar cells into the duodenum [CORRECT]
C. Endocrine production of bile and exocrine production of insulin
D. Both functions are exclusively endocrine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The pancreas has dual functions. The endocrine pancreas (islets of Langerhans, ~1-2% of pancreas mass) secretes hormones into
blood: insulin and amylin (beta cells), glucagon (alpha cells), somatostatin (delta cells), pancreatic polypeptide (PP cells), and
ghrelin (epsilon cells). The exocrine pancreas (acinar and duct cells, ~98% of mass) secretes digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase,
trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, elastase, nucleases) and bicarbonate via the main pancreatic duct into the duodenum. Chronic
pancreatitis destroys both functions, producing diabetes mellitus and pancreatic exocrine insufficiency (steatorrhea, malabsorption).
Q8: A patient with mononucleosis is being evaluated for potential splenomegaly. The NP correctly understands
that the spleen is normally located in which abdominal region and is normally palpable below the costal margin?
A. Right upper quadrant, normally palpable 2 cm below the costal margin
B. Left upper quadrant, protected by ribs 9-11, and is normally NOT palpable below the costal margin in
adults [CORRECT]
C. Epigastric region, normally palpable on deep inspiration
D. Umbilical region, palpable in thin adults
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant (LUQ), protected beneath ribs 9-11, between the fundus of the stomach and the
diaphragm. It is normally NOT palpable below the left costal margin in adults; if it becomes palpable, it is typically enlarged 2-3
times its normal size. The spleen performs immune functions (white pulp, splenic macrophages, antibody production) and filtration
functions (red pulp, removal of old RBCs, Howell-Jolly bodies, pitting). Splenomegaly can occur in mononucleosis, portal
hypertension, infections, hematologic malignancies, and storage disorders.
Q9: A 78-year-old patient presents for routine examination. The NP recognizes which age-related change in the
gastrointestinal system as clinically significant?
A. Increased gastric acid production leading to PUD
B. Decreased salivation, decreased esophageal motility, decreased colonic motility, and decreased hepatic
metabolism, predisposing to dysphagia, constipation, and altered drug handling [CORRECT]
C. Increased colonic motility causing diarrhea
D. Increased lower esophageal sphincter tone preventing GERD
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Age-related GI changes include: decreased salivation (xerostomia, dysphagia), decreased esophageal motility (presbyesophagus,
GERD risk), decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone (GERD), decreased gastric acid secretion and mucosal defense (atrophic
gastritis, B12 deficiency), decreased colonic motility and decreased rectal sensation (constipation, fecal incontinence), decreased
Page 3 | Advanced Health Assessment Graduate Nursing
, NUR 6001 - Advanced Health Assessment - GI/MSK/Neuro PE Exam 120 Questions - AGRADE Verified 2026/2027
hepatic blood flow and mass (altered drug metabolism), and decreased anal sphincter tone. These changes predispose older adults to
dysphagia, constipation, GERD, and adverse drug reactions.
Q10: A graduate nursing student is reviewing the four abdominal quadrants. The NP correctly identifies the
contents of the right upper quadrant (RUQ) as:
A. Stomach, spleen, and left kidney
B. Liver, gallbladder, right kidney, hepatic flexure of colon, and duodenum [CORRECT]
C. Cecum, appendix, and right ovary
D. Sigmoid colon, left kidney, and left ovary
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The four abdominal quadrants (RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, LLQ) are divided by a vertical line through the umbilicus (midclavicular line) and
a horizontal line through the umbilicus (transumbilical plane). RUQ contains: liver (right lobe), gallbladder, right kidney
(posteriorly), right adrenal gland, hepatic flexure of colon, portions of duodenum and pancreatic head. LUQ contains: stomach,
spleen, left kidney, left adrenal gland, splenic flexure of colon, pancreatic body/tail. RLQ contains: cecum, appendix, right ovary,
right ureter. LLQ contains: sigmoid colon, left ovary, left ureter.
Section 2: Gastrointestinal System — History and Subjective Data (Q11-Q20)
Chief Complaint, ROS, & Risk Factors
Q11: A 35-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain. The NP uses the OLDCARTS framework to
characterize the pain. The 'O' in OLDCARTS represents:
A. Onset: when the pain started, including whether sudden, gradual, or related to a specific event [CORRECT]
B. Outcome of the pain
C. Organ involvement suspected
D. Other associated symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
OLDCARTS is a mnemonic for characterizing pain: O = Onset (when started, sudden or gradual, related to event), L = Location
(where, radiation), D = Duration (continuous or intermittent, how long each episode), C = Characteristics (sharp, dull, burning,
cramping), A = Aggravating/Alleviating factors (food, position, medication, vomiting), R = Radiation (where does it spread), T =
Timing (relationship to meals, time of day), S = Severity (0-10 numeric scale or verbal descriptor). This systematic approach ensures
complete characterization.
Q12: A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder reports vomiting 'coffee-ground' material. The NP correctly
interprets this finding as:
A. Fresh, brisk upper GI bleeding requiring emergent endoscopy
B. Hematemesis of partially digested blood that has been in contact with gastric acid, converting hemoglobin to
hematin (acid hematin), producing the dark, granular 'coffee-ground' appearance; indicates upper GI bleeding
that is slower or has stopped [CORRECT]
C. Bile-stained vomitus indicating bowel obstruction
D. Feculent vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Page 4 | Advanced Health Assessment Graduate Nursing
