ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR - SET 3 EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
1. A client is receiving doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic. Which finding should the nurse recognize as a
clinically important adverse effect associated with this medication?
A. photosensitivity and esophagitis
B. nephrotoxicity and infusion reaction
C. hypoglycemia and weight gain
D. hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A. photosensitivity and esophagitis
Rationale: doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic. Its relevant adverse effect is photosensitivity and esophagitis;
safe nursing care requires connecting the medication class with its expected effects, monitoring needs, and major
risks.
2. A nurse is cleaning a blood spill. Which product should be used?
A. Plain water only
B. A dry paper towel with no disinfectant
C. An EPA-registered hospital disinfectant effective for bloodborne pathogens according to facility policy
D. Hand lotion
Correct Answer: C. An EPA-registered hospital disinfectant effective for bloodborne pathogens according to
facility policy
Rationale: Blood spills require an appropriate disinfectant and standard precautions to reduce pathogen
transmission.
3. The RN is assigning care with an experienced LPN/LVN. Which activity is appropriate to assign for a
stable postoperative client who needs a prescribed oral analgesic and routine reassessment?
A. Perform the first postoperative assessment after arrival from PACU
B. Develop the pain-management plan
C. Teach a client with no prior experience how to use a PCA pump
D. Administer the prescribed analgesic and report inadequate relief
Correct Answer: D. Administer the prescribed analgesic and report inadequate relief
Rationale: For a stable client, an LPN/LVN can generally perform focused care and administer routine
medications within scope; initial assessment, care planning, and initial teaching remain RN responsibilities.
4. During rapid assessment, the nurse identifies symmetric inflammatory joint pain with prolonged
morning stiffness in a client with rheumatoid arthritis. What is the priority response?
A. control source and restore intravascular volume/blood as indicated
B. control inflammation early with disease-modifying therapy
C. urgent surgical evaluation for fasciotomy
D. exercise, weight management, and analgesia as appropriate
Correct Answer: B. control inflammation early with disease-modifying therapy
Rationale: The priority for rheumatoid arthritis is to control inflammation early with disease-modifying therapy.
This addresses the immediate pathophysiology and reduces the risk of joint destruction and extra-articular
disease.
5. The charge nurse is assigning morning care. Which task is appropriate to delegate to trained assistive
personnel for a stable client 1 day after uncomplicated hip arthroplasty who needs help transferring to a
chair?
A. Reassess the client for new neurovascular compromise
B. Teach the client how to use the walker for the first time
C. Assist the client with the previously taught transfer using the prescribed mobility aid
D. Decide whether the prescribed activity level should be advanced
Correct Answer: C. Assist the client with the previously taught transfer using the prescribed mobility aid
Rationale: Stable routine mobility assistance can be delegated to trained assistive personnel after the RN has
assessed the client.
6. A client is experiencing visual impairment. Which finding is most consistent with this care need?
A. difficulty locating objects and navigating an unfamiliar room
B. involuntary urine loss associated with urgency but no urinary retention
C. abdominal bloating, nausea, or repeated coughing during tube feeding
,D. dry oral mucosa with inability to perform self-care
Correct Answer: A. difficulty locating objects and navigating an unfamiliar room
Rationale: difficulty locating objects and navigating an unfamiliar room is a common cue when caring for visual
impairment.
7. Which skill is expected in many 6-month-old infants?
A. Speaking in full sentences
B. Rolling and sitting with support while transferring objects between hands
C. Riding a tricycle
D. Using a mature pincer grasp
Correct Answer: B. Rolling and sitting with support while transferring objects between hands
Rationale: By about 6 months, many infants roll, sit with support, and transfer objects; more advanced language
and fine-motor skills develop later.
8. Which nurse response is most therapeutic for a client experiencing major depressive disorder with active
suicidal intent?
A. After stabilization, use nonjudgmental language and offer overdose-prevention and treatment resources
B. Help the client identify specific concerns and one manageable next step rather than offering false reassurance
C. Use neutral, nonjudgmental language focused on health and function rather than appearance
D. Ask directly about suicidal thoughts, plan, intent, and access to means without judgment
Correct Answer: D. Ask directly about suicidal thoughts, plan, intent, and access to means without judgment
Rationale: Direct suicide assessment does not increase suicide risk and identifies the level of immediate danger.
9. A client with new aphasia becomes frustrated during care. Which nursing approach best promotes
autonomy?
A. Direct all questions to the family
B. Allow extra response time and use supported communication while addressing the client directly
C. Assume the client cannot make any decisions
D. Finish the client's sentences immediately every time
Correct Answer: B. Allow extra response time and use supported communication while addressing the client
directly
Rationale: Aphasia does not necessarily impair cognition; supported communication preserves participation and
autonomy.
10. Which statement should the nurse include when teaching a client who is starting celecoxib?
A. remove contact lenses before instillation as directed
B. avoid grapefruit products
C. vitamin C may improve absorption; keep away from children
D. use the lowest effective dose
Correct Answer: D. use the lowest effective dose
Rationale: celecoxib is a COX-2 selective NSAID. Its relevant client teaching point is use the lowest effective
dose; safe nursing care requires connecting the medication class with its expected effects, monitoring needs, and
major risks.
11. A client with diabetes is confused and diaphoretic. Point-of-care glucose is 42 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L). The
client can swallow safely. What should the nurse do?
A. Give a rapid-acting oral carbohydrate and recheck glucose promptly
B. Give long-acting insulin
C. Restrict oral intake
D. Wait for the next scheduled meal
Correct Answer: A. Give a rapid-acting oral carbohydrate and recheck glucose promptly
Rationale: Symptomatic hypoglycemia in a conscious client who can swallow requires prompt fast-acting
carbohydrate and reassessment.
12. A parent asks when to introduce complementary foods to a healthy infant. Which guidance is
appropriate?
A. Start solid foods routinely at 1 month
B. Replace all breast milk or formula at 4 months
C. Delay all textured foods until age 2 years
, D. Introduce developmentally appropriate complementary foods around 6 months while continuing breast milk or
formula
Correct Answer: D. Introduce developmentally appropriate complementary foods around 6 months while
continuing breast milk or formula
Rationale: Complementary foods are typically introduced around 6 months when developmental readiness is
present, while breast milk or formula remains important.
13. The emergency nurse recognizes sudden neurologic deficit often with headache/vomiting and blood on
CT as intracerebral hemorrhage. Which treatment or nursing action has the highest priority?
A. control blood pressure per protocol and reverse anticoagulation when indicated
B. activate stroke pathway and determine thrombolysis/thrombectomy eligibility
C. assess respiratory function when weakness worsens
D. initiate isolation as indicated and give prompt empiric antimicrobials after cultures when feasible
Correct Answer: A. control blood pressure per protocol and reverse anticoagulation when indicated
Rationale: The priority for intracerebral hemorrhage is to control blood pressure per protocol and reverse
anticoagulation when indicated. This addresses the immediate pathophysiology and reduces the risk of herniation.
14. The nurse is evaluating a client being treated for hepatic encephalopathy. Which monitoring focus best
helps detect worsening disease or treatment complications?
A. clinical exam and imaging as indicated
B. lipase, hematocrit, renal function, calcium
C. stool frequency, CBC, inflammatory markers
D. mental status and precipitating factors
Correct Answer: D. mental status and precipitating factors
Rationale: For hepatic encephalopathy, focused monitoring includes mental status and precipitating factors.
Trending the most relevant data helps identify deterioration or treatment complications before they become
irreversible.
15. Which nurse response is most therapeutic for a client experiencing generalized anxiety disorder?
A. After stabilization, use nonjudgmental language and offer overdose-prevention and treatment resources
B. Say, "Tell me what you miss most about your spouse," and allow silence
C. Say, "I will stay with you. Focus on one slow breath at a time."
D. Help the client identify specific concerns and one manageable next step rather than offering false reassurance
Correct Answer: D. Help the client identify specific concerns and one manageable next step rather than offering
false reassurance
Rationale: Structured problem solving and evidence-based anxiety treatment are more therapeutic than
dismissing or minimizing worry.
16. Which nursing action best addresses visual impairment?
A. orient the client to the room, keep pathways clear, place items consistently, and announce your presence
B. keep the client upright, follow the prescribed texture/feeding plan, and use swallowing precautions
C. cluster nighttime care when possible, reduce noise/light, control symptoms, and support the client's normal
sleep routine
D. use multimodal pain control, position for comfort, and reassess response after intervention
Correct Answer: A. orient the client to the room, keep pathways clear, place items consistently, and announce
your presence
Rationale: Environmental organization and verbal orientation support independence while reducing fall risk.
17. A nurse suspects an older adult is being physically abused by a caregiver. Which action is appropriate?
A. Wait for the client to prove the abuse occurred
B. Confront the caregiver alone before assessing safety
C. Follow mandatory reporting law and facility policy while addressing immediate safety
D. Document the concern but take no additional action
Correct Answer: C. Follow mandatory reporting law and facility policy while addressing immediate safety
Rationale: Nurses must follow applicable mandatory-reporting requirements and prioritize immediate client
safety when abuse is suspected.
18. A healthy adult asks about exercise. Which recommendation is consistent with general public-health
guidance?
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
1. A client is receiving doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic. Which finding should the nurse recognize as a
clinically important adverse effect associated with this medication?
A. photosensitivity and esophagitis
B. nephrotoxicity and infusion reaction
C. hypoglycemia and weight gain
D. hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A. photosensitivity and esophagitis
Rationale: doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic. Its relevant adverse effect is photosensitivity and esophagitis;
safe nursing care requires connecting the medication class with its expected effects, monitoring needs, and major
risks.
2. A nurse is cleaning a blood spill. Which product should be used?
A. Plain water only
B. A dry paper towel with no disinfectant
C. An EPA-registered hospital disinfectant effective for bloodborne pathogens according to facility policy
D. Hand lotion
Correct Answer: C. An EPA-registered hospital disinfectant effective for bloodborne pathogens according to
facility policy
Rationale: Blood spills require an appropriate disinfectant and standard precautions to reduce pathogen
transmission.
3. The RN is assigning care with an experienced LPN/LVN. Which activity is appropriate to assign for a
stable postoperative client who needs a prescribed oral analgesic and routine reassessment?
A. Perform the first postoperative assessment after arrival from PACU
B. Develop the pain-management plan
C. Teach a client with no prior experience how to use a PCA pump
D. Administer the prescribed analgesic and report inadequate relief
Correct Answer: D. Administer the prescribed analgesic and report inadequate relief
Rationale: For a stable client, an LPN/LVN can generally perform focused care and administer routine
medications within scope; initial assessment, care planning, and initial teaching remain RN responsibilities.
4. During rapid assessment, the nurse identifies symmetric inflammatory joint pain with prolonged
morning stiffness in a client with rheumatoid arthritis. What is the priority response?
A. control source and restore intravascular volume/blood as indicated
B. control inflammation early with disease-modifying therapy
C. urgent surgical evaluation for fasciotomy
D. exercise, weight management, and analgesia as appropriate
Correct Answer: B. control inflammation early with disease-modifying therapy
Rationale: The priority for rheumatoid arthritis is to control inflammation early with disease-modifying therapy.
This addresses the immediate pathophysiology and reduces the risk of joint destruction and extra-articular
disease.
5. The charge nurse is assigning morning care. Which task is appropriate to delegate to trained assistive
personnel for a stable client 1 day after uncomplicated hip arthroplasty who needs help transferring to a
chair?
A. Reassess the client for new neurovascular compromise
B. Teach the client how to use the walker for the first time
C. Assist the client with the previously taught transfer using the prescribed mobility aid
D. Decide whether the prescribed activity level should be advanced
Correct Answer: C. Assist the client with the previously taught transfer using the prescribed mobility aid
Rationale: Stable routine mobility assistance can be delegated to trained assistive personnel after the RN has
assessed the client.
6. A client is experiencing visual impairment. Which finding is most consistent with this care need?
A. difficulty locating objects and navigating an unfamiliar room
B. involuntary urine loss associated with urgency but no urinary retention
C. abdominal bloating, nausea, or repeated coughing during tube feeding
,D. dry oral mucosa with inability to perform self-care
Correct Answer: A. difficulty locating objects and navigating an unfamiliar room
Rationale: difficulty locating objects and navigating an unfamiliar room is a common cue when caring for visual
impairment.
7. Which skill is expected in many 6-month-old infants?
A. Speaking in full sentences
B. Rolling and sitting with support while transferring objects between hands
C. Riding a tricycle
D. Using a mature pincer grasp
Correct Answer: B. Rolling and sitting with support while transferring objects between hands
Rationale: By about 6 months, many infants roll, sit with support, and transfer objects; more advanced language
and fine-motor skills develop later.
8. Which nurse response is most therapeutic for a client experiencing major depressive disorder with active
suicidal intent?
A. After stabilization, use nonjudgmental language and offer overdose-prevention and treatment resources
B. Help the client identify specific concerns and one manageable next step rather than offering false reassurance
C. Use neutral, nonjudgmental language focused on health and function rather than appearance
D. Ask directly about suicidal thoughts, plan, intent, and access to means without judgment
Correct Answer: D. Ask directly about suicidal thoughts, plan, intent, and access to means without judgment
Rationale: Direct suicide assessment does not increase suicide risk and identifies the level of immediate danger.
9. A client with new aphasia becomes frustrated during care. Which nursing approach best promotes
autonomy?
A. Direct all questions to the family
B. Allow extra response time and use supported communication while addressing the client directly
C. Assume the client cannot make any decisions
D. Finish the client's sentences immediately every time
Correct Answer: B. Allow extra response time and use supported communication while addressing the client
directly
Rationale: Aphasia does not necessarily impair cognition; supported communication preserves participation and
autonomy.
10. Which statement should the nurse include when teaching a client who is starting celecoxib?
A. remove contact lenses before instillation as directed
B. avoid grapefruit products
C. vitamin C may improve absorption; keep away from children
D. use the lowest effective dose
Correct Answer: D. use the lowest effective dose
Rationale: celecoxib is a COX-2 selective NSAID. Its relevant client teaching point is use the lowest effective
dose; safe nursing care requires connecting the medication class with its expected effects, monitoring needs, and
major risks.
11. A client with diabetes is confused and diaphoretic. Point-of-care glucose is 42 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L). The
client can swallow safely. What should the nurse do?
A. Give a rapid-acting oral carbohydrate and recheck glucose promptly
B. Give long-acting insulin
C. Restrict oral intake
D. Wait for the next scheduled meal
Correct Answer: A. Give a rapid-acting oral carbohydrate and recheck glucose promptly
Rationale: Symptomatic hypoglycemia in a conscious client who can swallow requires prompt fast-acting
carbohydrate and reassessment.
12. A parent asks when to introduce complementary foods to a healthy infant. Which guidance is
appropriate?
A. Start solid foods routinely at 1 month
B. Replace all breast milk or formula at 4 months
C. Delay all textured foods until age 2 years
, D. Introduce developmentally appropriate complementary foods around 6 months while continuing breast milk or
formula
Correct Answer: D. Introduce developmentally appropriate complementary foods around 6 months while
continuing breast milk or formula
Rationale: Complementary foods are typically introduced around 6 months when developmental readiness is
present, while breast milk or formula remains important.
13. The emergency nurse recognizes sudden neurologic deficit often with headache/vomiting and blood on
CT as intracerebral hemorrhage. Which treatment or nursing action has the highest priority?
A. control blood pressure per protocol and reverse anticoagulation when indicated
B. activate stroke pathway and determine thrombolysis/thrombectomy eligibility
C. assess respiratory function when weakness worsens
D. initiate isolation as indicated and give prompt empiric antimicrobials after cultures when feasible
Correct Answer: A. control blood pressure per protocol and reverse anticoagulation when indicated
Rationale: The priority for intracerebral hemorrhage is to control blood pressure per protocol and reverse
anticoagulation when indicated. This addresses the immediate pathophysiology and reduces the risk of herniation.
14. The nurse is evaluating a client being treated for hepatic encephalopathy. Which monitoring focus best
helps detect worsening disease or treatment complications?
A. clinical exam and imaging as indicated
B. lipase, hematocrit, renal function, calcium
C. stool frequency, CBC, inflammatory markers
D. mental status and precipitating factors
Correct Answer: D. mental status and precipitating factors
Rationale: For hepatic encephalopathy, focused monitoring includes mental status and precipitating factors.
Trending the most relevant data helps identify deterioration or treatment complications before they become
irreversible.
15. Which nurse response is most therapeutic for a client experiencing generalized anxiety disorder?
A. After stabilization, use nonjudgmental language and offer overdose-prevention and treatment resources
B. Say, "Tell me what you miss most about your spouse," and allow silence
C. Say, "I will stay with you. Focus on one slow breath at a time."
D. Help the client identify specific concerns and one manageable next step rather than offering false reassurance
Correct Answer: D. Help the client identify specific concerns and one manageable next step rather than offering
false reassurance
Rationale: Structured problem solving and evidence-based anxiety treatment are more therapeutic than
dismissing or minimizing worry.
16. Which nursing action best addresses visual impairment?
A. orient the client to the room, keep pathways clear, place items consistently, and announce your presence
B. keep the client upright, follow the prescribed texture/feeding plan, and use swallowing precautions
C. cluster nighttime care when possible, reduce noise/light, control symptoms, and support the client's normal
sleep routine
D. use multimodal pain control, position for comfort, and reassess response after intervention
Correct Answer: A. orient the client to the room, keep pathways clear, place items consistently, and announce
your presence
Rationale: Environmental organization and verbal orientation support independence while reducing fall risk.
17. A nurse suspects an older adult is being physically abused by a caregiver. Which action is appropriate?
A. Wait for the client to prove the abuse occurred
B. Confront the caregiver alone before assessing safety
C. Follow mandatory reporting law and facility policy while addressing immediate safety
D. Document the concern but take no additional action
Correct Answer: C. Follow mandatory reporting law and facility policy while addressing immediate safety
Rationale: Nurses must follow applicable mandatory-reporting requirements and prioritize immediate client
safety when abuse is suspected.
18. A healthy adult asks about exercise. Which recommendation is consistent with general public-health
guidance?
