NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology 200 Practice Questions & Rationales 2026/2027 PDF – Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales | Instant Download

NSG 5140: Advanced Pathophysiology
200 Practice Questions & Rationales
Academic Year: 2026/2027

Cellular Biology & Genetics (Questions 1-20)
1. A patient with a defect in the CFTR gene experiences thick mucus
production. This is an example of a mutation in a gene encoding for which
type of protein?
A. Structural protein
B. Enzyme
C. Receptor
D. Transport protein
Answer: D. Transport protein
Rationale: The CFTR gene encodes a transport protein (an ion channel) that
regulates chloride transport across epithelial cell membranes. A defect leads to
abnormal ion and water transport, resulting in thick secretions.
2. A researcher is studying a cell that has a malfunction in the Golgi
apparatus. Which cellular function would be most directly impaired?
A. ATP production
B. Protein synthesis
C. Post-translational modification and packaging of proteins
D. Intracellular digestion of waste
Answer: C. Post-translational modification and packaging of proteins
Rationale: The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and
packaging proteins into vesicles for secretion or delivery to other organelles. ATP
production is mitochondrial, protein synthesis is ribosomal, and intracellular
digestion is lysosomal.

,3. During ischemia, a cell switches to anaerobic metabolism. What is the
primary consequence of this shift?
A. Increased ATP production
B. Decreased intracellular pH
C. Increased intracellular pH
D. Increased glycogen synthesis
Answer: B. Decreased intracellular pH
Rationale: Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid, leading to a decrease in
intracellular pH. This shift is inefficient and produces only 2 ATP per glucose
molecule, contributing to cellular injury.
4. A patient is diagnosed with a mitochondrial disorder. Which cells would be
most affected by this condition?
A. Skin cells
B. Adipose cells
C. Skeletal muscle and neurons
D. Red blood cells
Answer: C. Skeletal muscle and neurons
Rationale: Mitochondrial disorders primarily affect tissues with high energy
demands, such as skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and the central nervous system.
Red blood cells lack mitochondria entirely.
5. A nurse is reviewing the phases of the cell cycle. In which phase does DNA
replication occur?
A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
Answer: B. S phase
Rationale: The S (synthesis) phase is when DNA replication occurs. G1 is growth,
G2 is preparation for mitosis, and M is mitosis.
6. Apoptosis is characterized by which of the following?
A. Cell swelling and rupture
B. Activation of the inflammatory response

,C. Cellular shrinkage and formation of apoptotic bodies
D. Necrosis of surrounding tissue
Answer: C. Cellular shrinkage and formation of apoptotic bodies
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death characterized by cell shrinkage,
chromatin condensation, and the formation of apoptotic bodies that are
phagocytosed without triggering inflammation. Necrosis is associated with
swelling, rupture, and inflammation.
7. A patient has a mutation causing an overactive RAS protein. This is most
directly associated with which cellular process?
A. Increased apoptosis
B. Uncontrolled cell proliferation
C. Decreased DNA repair
D. Increased cell adhesion
Answer: B. Uncontrolled cell proliferation
Rationale: RAS is an oncogene that acts as a signal transducer for cell growth and
proliferation. An overactive RAS protein leads to continuous cell division and is a
common mechanism in cancer.
8. Which cellular organelle is the primary site of reactive oxygen species
(ROS) production?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Ribosome
C. Mitochondria
D. Nucleus
Answer: C. Mitochondria
Rationale: The mitochondria are the primary site of ROS production as a
byproduct of oxidative phosphorylation. ROS can cause damage to cellular lipids,
proteins, and DNA.
9. A patient with a tumor suppressor gene mutation develops cancer. Which
gene is the most commonly mutated tumor suppressor in human cancers?
A. RAS
B. MYC

, C. TP53
D. HER2
Answer: C. TP53 k k




Rationale: TP53 (p53) is the most frequently mutated tumor suppressor gene in
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human cancers. It is crucial for DNA repair and apoptosis; its loss allows cells with
k k k k k k k k k k k k k k k




DNA damage to survive and proliferate.
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10. The process by which a cell engulfs large particles or microorganisms is
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called:
k




A. Pinocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis k




D. Exocytosis
Answer: B. Phagocytosis k k




Rationale: Phagocytosis is "cell eating," involving the engulfment of large particles.
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Pinocytosis is "cell drinking" for fluids. Receptor-mediated endocytosis uses
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receptors to take up specific molecules.
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11. Achild is diagnosed with Down syndrome. Which genetic mechanism
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explains this condition?
k k k




A. Deletion of a chromosome segment k k k k




B. Translocation of a chromosome segment k k k k




C. Nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes k k k




D. Point mutation in a single gene
k k k k k




Answer: C. Nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes
k k k k k




Rationale: Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is most commonly caused by
k k k k k k k k k




nondisjunction during meiosis, resulting in a gamete with an extra chromosome 21.
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12. A patient with a genetic disorder is found to have a point mutation that
k k k k k k k k k k k k k




changes a codon from GAG to GUG, resulting in the substitution of valine for
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glutamic acid in the hemoglobin protein. This is an example of a:
k k k k k k k k k k k k




A. Frameshift mutation k




B. Missense mutation k




C. Nonsense mutation k




D. Silent mutation k