EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam —
200-Question Practice Test Questions with
Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
2026/2027 Update | SA-C Exam Prep 100%
Pass Guarantee
These are original paramedic-entrance practice questions, not actual or leaked FISDAP exam
questions. Each includes the answer and rationale.
Questions 1–50
1. You arrive at a motor-vehicle collision. What should you do first?
A. Begin a secondary assessment
B. Determine scene safety
C. Obtain a blood pressure
D. Apply a cervical collar
Answer: B. Determine scene safety.
Rationale: The provider must ensure the scene is safe before entering or beginning patient care.
2. Which PPE is most appropriate when blood exposure is possible?
A. Gloves
B. Shoe covers only
C. Eye protection only
D. No PPE if the patient is conscious
Answer: A. Gloves.
Rationale: Gloves protect against contact with blood and body fluids. Additional PPE is added
based on exposure risk.
3. What is the primary purpose of triage during a mass-casualty incident?
A. Treat the most seriously injured patient first
B. Transport every patient immediately
,C. Prioritize patients based on urgency and available resources
D. Obtain complete histories from all patients
Answer: C. Prioritize patients based on urgency and available resources.
Rationale: Triage allocates limited resources to achieve the greatest overall benefit.
4. A patient is unconscious but breathing normally. Which airway maneuver is generally
appropriate when trauma is not suspected?
A. Head-tilt/chin-lift
B. Abdominal thrusts
C. Blind finger sweep
D. Jaw clenching
Answer: A. Head-tilt/chin-lift.
Rationale: Head-tilt/chin-lift opens the airway when cervical-spine trauma is not suspected.
5. Trauma is suspected in an unconscious patient. Which airway maneuver is preferred
initially?
A. Head-tilt/chin-lift
B. Jaw-thrust
C. Blind finger sweep
D. Neck hyperextension
Answer: B. Jaw-thrust.
Rationale: The jaw-thrust can open the airway while minimizing movement of the cervical
spine.
6. Which finding is most concerning for inadequate oxygenation?
A. Normal speech
B. Cyanosis with altered mental status
C. Warm skin
D. Normal respiratory effort
Answer: B. Cyanosis with altered mental status.
Rationale: Cyanosis and altered mentation can indicate significant hypoxemia and require
immediate assessment and intervention.
,7. An adult is apneic but has a pulse. What is the priority?
A. Begin chest compressions immediately
B. Provide ventilatory support
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG first
D. Place the patient in a sitting position
Answer: B. Provide ventilatory support.
Rationale: An apneic patient with a pulse needs assisted ventilation while maintaining airway
patency.
8. Which airway adjunct is generally used in an unconscious patient without a gag reflex?
A. Oropharyngeal airway
B. Nasopharyngeal airway only
C. Nasogastric tube
D. Cervical collar
Answer: A. Oropharyngeal airway.
Rationale: An OPA helps prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway and is appropriate
when the gag reflex is absent.
9. A patient with an intact gag reflex needs an airway adjunct. Which is generally
appropriate?
A. OPA
B. NPA
C. Esophageal tube
D. Bite block
Answer: B. NPA.
Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway can be useful in a patient who retains a gag reflex,
provided there are no contraindications.
10. Which finding is a contraindication or major concern for NPA placement?
A. Mild cough
B. Suspected significant facial or basilar skull trauma
C. Alertness
D. Normal breathing
Answer: B. Suspected significant facial or basilar skull trauma.
Rationale: Significant facial or skull-base trauma may make nasal airway insertion unsafe.
, 11. What is the most reliable initial indicator of effective ventilation?
A. Skin color alone
B. Chest rise and respiratory status
C. Blood pressure alone
D. Pupil size
Answer: B. Chest rise and respiratory status.
Rationale: Effective ventilation should produce visible chest movement and appropriate clinical
signs of ventilation.
12. A patient has severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak full sentences. What
should the EMT do?
A. Delay treatment until a complete history is obtained
B. Immediately assess and support airway and breathing
C. Have the patient walk
D. Give food
Answer: B. Immediately assess and support airway and breathing.
Rationale: Severe respiratory distress is an immediate ABC priority.
13. Which device provides a high concentration of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing
patient?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Nonrebreather mask
C. Simple face shield
D. Room air
Answer: B. Nonrebreather mask.
Rationale: A properly functioning nonrebreather can provide a high concentration of
supplemental oxygen.
14. What should you do if the reservoir bag of a nonrebreather collapses significantly
during inspiration?
A. Ignore it
B. Increase oxygen flow as appropriate and reassess the mask/system
C. Remove oxygen permanently
D. Have the patient hold their breath
200-Question Practice Test Questions with
Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
2026/2027 Update | SA-C Exam Prep 100%
Pass Guarantee
These are original paramedic-entrance practice questions, not actual or leaked FISDAP exam
questions. Each includes the answer and rationale.
Questions 1–50
1. You arrive at a motor-vehicle collision. What should you do first?
A. Begin a secondary assessment
B. Determine scene safety
C. Obtain a blood pressure
D. Apply a cervical collar
Answer: B. Determine scene safety.
Rationale: The provider must ensure the scene is safe before entering or beginning patient care.
2. Which PPE is most appropriate when blood exposure is possible?
A. Gloves
B. Shoe covers only
C. Eye protection only
D. No PPE if the patient is conscious
Answer: A. Gloves.
Rationale: Gloves protect against contact with blood and body fluids. Additional PPE is added
based on exposure risk.
3. What is the primary purpose of triage during a mass-casualty incident?
A. Treat the most seriously injured patient first
B. Transport every patient immediately
,C. Prioritize patients based on urgency and available resources
D. Obtain complete histories from all patients
Answer: C. Prioritize patients based on urgency and available resources.
Rationale: Triage allocates limited resources to achieve the greatest overall benefit.
4. A patient is unconscious but breathing normally. Which airway maneuver is generally
appropriate when trauma is not suspected?
A. Head-tilt/chin-lift
B. Abdominal thrusts
C. Blind finger sweep
D. Jaw clenching
Answer: A. Head-tilt/chin-lift.
Rationale: Head-tilt/chin-lift opens the airway when cervical-spine trauma is not suspected.
5. Trauma is suspected in an unconscious patient. Which airway maneuver is preferred
initially?
A. Head-tilt/chin-lift
B. Jaw-thrust
C. Blind finger sweep
D. Neck hyperextension
Answer: B. Jaw-thrust.
Rationale: The jaw-thrust can open the airway while minimizing movement of the cervical
spine.
6. Which finding is most concerning for inadequate oxygenation?
A. Normal speech
B. Cyanosis with altered mental status
C. Warm skin
D. Normal respiratory effort
Answer: B. Cyanosis with altered mental status.
Rationale: Cyanosis and altered mentation can indicate significant hypoxemia and require
immediate assessment and intervention.
,7. An adult is apneic but has a pulse. What is the priority?
A. Begin chest compressions immediately
B. Provide ventilatory support
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG first
D. Place the patient in a sitting position
Answer: B. Provide ventilatory support.
Rationale: An apneic patient with a pulse needs assisted ventilation while maintaining airway
patency.
8. Which airway adjunct is generally used in an unconscious patient without a gag reflex?
A. Oropharyngeal airway
B. Nasopharyngeal airway only
C. Nasogastric tube
D. Cervical collar
Answer: A. Oropharyngeal airway.
Rationale: An OPA helps prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway and is appropriate
when the gag reflex is absent.
9. A patient with an intact gag reflex needs an airway adjunct. Which is generally
appropriate?
A. OPA
B. NPA
C. Esophageal tube
D. Bite block
Answer: B. NPA.
Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway can be useful in a patient who retains a gag reflex,
provided there are no contraindications.
10. Which finding is a contraindication or major concern for NPA placement?
A. Mild cough
B. Suspected significant facial or basilar skull trauma
C. Alertness
D. Normal breathing
Answer: B. Suspected significant facial or basilar skull trauma.
Rationale: Significant facial or skull-base trauma may make nasal airway insertion unsafe.
, 11. What is the most reliable initial indicator of effective ventilation?
A. Skin color alone
B. Chest rise and respiratory status
C. Blood pressure alone
D. Pupil size
Answer: B. Chest rise and respiratory status.
Rationale: Effective ventilation should produce visible chest movement and appropriate clinical
signs of ventilation.
12. A patient has severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak full sentences. What
should the EMT do?
A. Delay treatment until a complete history is obtained
B. Immediately assess and support airway and breathing
C. Have the patient walk
D. Give food
Answer: B. Immediately assess and support airway and breathing.
Rationale: Severe respiratory distress is an immediate ABC priority.
13. Which device provides a high concentration of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing
patient?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Nonrebreather mask
C. Simple face shield
D. Room air
Answer: B. Nonrebreather mask.
Rationale: A properly functioning nonrebreather can provide a high concentration of
supplemental oxygen.
14. What should you do if the reservoir bag of a nonrebreather collapses significantly
during inspiration?
A. Ignore it
B. Increase oxygen flow as appropriate and reassess the mask/system
C. Remove oxygen permanently
D. Have the patient hold their breath
